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* To obtain a copy of the graphics references that are to be used with
this question pool, see the downloadable PDF graphic on our web page
directly below this pool, or send a business sized SASE to the
ARRL/VEC, 225 Main St, Newington CT 06111. Request the "2000 Extra
class Question Pool Graphics". For $1.50 the ARRL VEC will supply a
hardcopy of this pool without receiving an SASE.
* The questions contained within this pool must be used in all Extra
class examinations beginning April 15, 2000, and is intended to be
used up through June 30, 2002.
* The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis following
each question number [eg, in E1A01 (B), position B contains the
correct answer text].
Question Pool
ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS
as released by
Question Pool Committee
National Conference of
Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
February 1, 2000
SUBELEMENT E1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [7 Exam Questions -- 7 Groups]
E1A Operating standards: frequency privileges for Extra class
amateurs; emission standards; message forwarding; frequency sharing
between ITU Regions; FCC modification of station license; 30-meter
band sharing; stations aboard ships or aircraft; telemetry;
telecommand of an amateur station; authorized telecommand
transmissions; definitions of image, pulse and test
E1A01 @E1A01 (B) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are
authorized to Extra class control operators?
A. 3525-3775 kHz
B. 3500-3525 kHz
C. 3700-3750 kHz
D. 3500-3550 kHz
E1A02 @E1A02 (C) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are
authorized to Extra class control operators?
A. 3775-3800 kHz
B. 3800-3850 kHz
C. 3750-3775 kHz
D. 3800-3825 kHz
E1A03 @E1A03 (A) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are
authorized to Extra class control operators?
A. 7000-7025 kHz
B. 7000-7050 kHz
C. 7025-7050 kHz
D. 7100-7150 kHz
E1A04 @E1A04 (D) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are
authorized to Extra class control operators?
A. 14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
B. 14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz
C. 14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz
D. 14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
E1A05 @E1A05 (C) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are
authorized to Extra class control operators?
A. 21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz
B. 21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz
C. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz
D. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz
E1A06 @E1A08 (D) [97.307c]
What must an amateur licensee do if a spurious emission from his or
her station causes harmful interference to the reception of another
radio station?
A. Pay a fine each time it happens
B. Submit a written explanation to the FCC
C. Forfeit the station license if it happens more than once
D. Eliminate or reduce the interference
E1A07 @A1A08 (A) [97.307d]
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission
from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on a
frequency below 30 MHz?
A. 50 mW
B. 100 mW
C. 10 mW
D. 10 W
E1A08 @A1A09 (B) [97.307d]
How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must any
spurious emissions from a station transmitter or external RF power
amplifier transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz be attenuated?
A. At least 10 dB
B. At least 40 dB
C. At least 50 dB
D. At least 100 dB
E1A09 @A1A10 (C) [97.307e]
How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must any
spurious emissions from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier
transmitting on a frequency between 30 and 225 MHz be attenuated?
A. At least 10 dB
B. At least 40 dB
C. At least 60 dB
D. At least 100 dB
E1A10 @A1A11 (D) [97.307e]
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission
from a transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on frequencies
between 30 and 225 MHz?
A. 5 microwatts
B. 10 microwatts
C. 20 microwatts
D. 25 microwatts
E1A11 @E1A06 (B) [97.219b&d]
If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system
inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules,
who is accountable for the rules violation?
A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the originating station and conditionally
the first forwarding station
C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not
authenticating the source from which they accept communications
E1A12 @E1A07 (A) [97.219c]
If your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a
communication that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you
should take?
A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become
aware of it
B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not
comply with FCC rules
C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
D. Discontinue forwarding all messages
E1A13 @E1A11 (D) [97.27]
Why might the FCC modify an amateur station license?
A. To relieve crowding in certain bands
B. To better prepare for a time of national emergency
C. To enforce a radio quiet zone within one mile of an airport
D. To promote the public interest, convenience and necessity
E1A14 @E1A12 (A) [97.11a]
If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft and is
separate from the main radio installation, what condition must be met
before the station is operated?
A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the
pilot in command of the aircraft
B. Its antenna must be separate from the main ship or aircraft
antennas, transmitting only when the main radios are not in use
C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the
main ship or aircraft power supply
D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on
his or her amateur license
E1A15 @E1A13 (B) [97.11]
What type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit
amateur communications from a vessel registered in the US while in
international waters?
A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
B. Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur
licensee
C. Any General class or higher license
D. An Extra class license
E1A16 @E1A14 (D) [97.211b]
When may a station use special codes intended to obscure the meaning
of messages?
A. Never under any circumstances
B. Only when a Special Temporary Authority has been obtained from the
FCC
C. Only when an Extra class operator is controlling the station
D. When sending telecommand messages to a station in space operation
E1B Station restrictions: restrictions on station locations;
restricted operation; teacher as control operator; station antenna
structures; definition and operation of remote control and automatic
control; control link
E1B01 @E1B01 (A) [97.13a]
Which of the following factors might restrict the physical location of
an amateur operator's station equipment or antenna structure?
A. The land may have environmental importance; or it is significant
in American history, architecture or culture
B. The location's political or societal importance
C. The location's geographical or horticultural importance
D. The location's international importance, requiring consultation
with one or more foreign governments before installation
E1B02 @E1B02 (A) [97.13b]
Outside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an
amateur station be located without concern for protecting the facility
from harmful interference?
A. 1 mile
B. 3 miles
C. 10 miles
D. 30 miles
E1B03 @E1B03 (C) [97.13a]
What must be done before an amateur station is placed within an
officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area
listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
E1B04 @E1B04 (A) [97.121a]
If an amateur station interferes with the reception of broadcast
stations on a well-engineered receiver, during what hours shall the
amateur station NOT be operated on the interfering frequencies?
A. Daily from 8 PM to 10:30 PM local time and additionally from 10:30
AM to 1 PM on Sunday
B. Daily from 6 PM to 12 AM local time and additionally from 8 AM to
5 PM on Sunday
C. Daily for any continuous span of at least 2.5 hours and for at
least 5 continuous hours on Sunday
D. Daily for any continuous span of at least 6 hours and for at least
9 continuous hours on Sunday
E1B05 @E1B05 (D) [97.121a]
If an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a
domestic broadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design,
on what frequencies may the operation of the amateur station be
restricted?
A. On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station
B. On all frequencies below 30 MHz
C. On all frequencies above 30 MHz
D. On the interfering amateur frequency or frequencies
E1B06 @E1B06 (C) [97.113c]
When may a paid professional teacher be the control operator of an
amateur station used in the teacher's classroom?
A. Only when the teacher is not paid during periods of time when an
amateur station is used
B. Only when the classroom is in a correctional institution
C. Only when the station is used by that teacher as a part of
classroom instruction at an educational institution
D. Only when the station is restricted to making contacts with
similar stations at other educational institutions
E1B07 @E1B07 (B) [97.113c]
Who may accept compensation when acting as a control operator in a
classroom?
A. Any licensed amateur
B. Only teachers at educational institutions
C. Only teachers at correctional institutions
D. Only students at educational or correctional institutions
E1B08 @E1B08 (D) [97.15b]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes
What limits must state and local authorities observe when legislating
height and dimension restrictions for amateur antenna structures?
A. FAA regulations specify a minimum height for amateur antenna
structures located near airports
B. FCC regulations specify a 200 foot minimum height for amateur
antenna structures
C. State and local restrictions of amateur antenna structures are not
allowed
D. PRB-1 specifies that authorities must reasonably accommodate the
installation of amateur antenna structures
E1B09 @E1B09 (B) [97.15]
If an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what
height restrictions apply?
A. The structure must not extend more that 200 feet above average
height of the terrain
B. The structure must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level
at its site
C. There are no height restrictions since the structure would not be
a hazard to aircraft in a valley or canyon
D. The structure must not extend more that 200 feet above the top of
the valley or canyon
E1B10 @E1B11 (D) [97.15]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes.
What kind of approval is required before erecting an amateur antenna
located near an airport as defined in the FCC rules?
A. The FAA and FCC both must approve any type of antenna structure
located near an airport
B. Approval must be obtained from the airport manager
C. Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities
D. The FCC must approve an antenna structure that is higher than 20
feet above any natural or existing man made structure
E1B11 @E1B12 (C) [97.15]
What special restrictions does the FCC impose on amateur antennas
mounted on motor vehicles?
A. Such antennas may not extend more than 15 feet above the roof of
the vehicle
B. Complex antennas, such as a Yagi or quad beam, may not be
installed on motor vehicles
C. None
D. Such antennas must comply with the recommendations of the vehicle
manufacturer
E1B12 @A1E10 (C) [97.15a]
What must an amateur obtain before installing an antenna structure
more than 200 feet high?
A. An environmental assessment
B. A Special Temporary Authorization
C. Prior FCC approval
D. An effective radiated power statement
E1B13 @A1B01 (D) [97.3a38]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes
What is meant by a remotely controlled station?
A. A station operated away from its regular home location
B. Control of a station from a point located other than at the
station transmitter
C. A station operating under automatic control
D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link
E1B14 @A1B03 (A) [97.201d,97.203d,97.205d]
Which kind of station operation may not be automatically controlled?
A. Control of a model craft
B. Beacon operation
C. Auxiliary operation
D. Repeater operation
E1B15 @A1B05 (A) [97.3a6]
What is meant by automatic control of a station?
A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that a control
operator does not have to be present at a control point
B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
C. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does
not have to be present at the control point at all times
D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally
controlled station
E1B16 @A1B06 (B) [97.3a6]
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under
automatic control differ from one under local control?
A. Under local control there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control a control operator is not required to be
present at a control point
C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be
present at a control point
E1B17 @A1B14 (C) [97.3a38]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes
What is a control link?
A. A device that automatically controls an unattended station
B. An automatically operated link between two stations
C. The means of control between a control point and a remotely
controlled station
D. A device that limits the time of a station's transmission
E1B18 @A1B15 (D) [97.3a38]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes
What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between a
control point and a remotely controlled station?
A. A tone link
B. A wire control
C. A remote control
D. A control link
E1C Reciprocal operating: definition of reciprocal operating permit;
purpose of reciprocal agreement rules; alien control operator
privileges; identification; application for reciprocal permit;
reciprocal permit license term (Note: This includes CEPT and IARP.)
E1C01 @E1C01 (A) [97.5c, d, e, 97.107]
*Modified Rules citation, Q for Rules changes.
What is an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation?
A. An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued by
certain foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the US
B. An FCC permit to allow a US licensed amateur to operate in a
foreign nation, except Canada
C. An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle third-
party traffic between the US and the amateur's own nation
D. An FCC agreement with another country allowing the passing of
third-party traffic between amateurs of the two nations
E1C02 @E1C02 (B) [97.107]
*Modified Rule Citation and Q, B, C for new rules.
Who is eligible for an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal
operation?
A. Anyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign
government
B. Any non-US citizen holding an amateur license issued by a foreign
government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement
C. Anyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign
government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement
D. Any non-US citizen holding a valid amateur or shortwave listener's
license issued by a foreign government
E1C03 @E1C03 (C) [97.107]
*Modified Rule Citation and Q, A for new rules.
What operator frequency privileges are authorized by an FCC
authorization for alien reciprocal operation?
A. Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent US amateur license,
unless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement on the authorization
B. Those that the holder of the permit would have in their own
country
C. Those authorized to US amateurs that the holder of the permit
would have in their own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
D. Only those frequencies approved by the International Amateur Radio
Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
E1C04 @E1C04 (D) [97.119g]
*Modified Rule Citation and Q for new rules.
What additional station identification, in addition to his or her own
call sign, does an alien operator supply when operating in the US
under an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation?
A. No additional identification is required
B. The grid-square locator closest to his or her present location is
included before the call
C. The serial number of the permit and the call-letter district
number of the station location is included before the call
D. The letter-numeral indicating the station location in the US is
included before their own call and closest city and state
E1C05 @E1C05 (A) [97.107]
*Modified Rule Citation and Q for new rules.
When may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur license obtain an FCC
authorization for alien reciprocal operation?
A. Never; US citizens are not eligible
B. When the citizen has imported his or her equipment from the
foreign country
C. When the citizen has never held a US amateur license
D. When the citizen has no current US amateur license
E1C06 @E1C07 (A) [97.107]
*Modified Rule Citation and Q for new rules.
Which of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur from being
eligible for a US authorization for alien reciprocal operation?
A. Holding only an amateur license issued by a country but not being
a citizen of that country
B. Citizenship in their own country but not US citizenship
C. Holding only an amateur license issued by their own country but
holding no US amateur license
D. Holding an amateur license issued by their own country granting
them frequency privileges beyond US Extra class privileges
E1C07 @E1C08 (B) [97.107a]
*Modified Rule Citation and Q, A for new rules.
What special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a
Canadian amateur license may operate in the US?
A. All aliens, including Canadians, must obtain an FCC authorization
for alien reciprocal operation
B. No special document is required
C. The citizen must have an FCC-issued validation of their Canadian
license
D. The citizen must have an FCC-issued Certificate of US License
Grant without Examination to operate for a period longer than 10 days
E1C08 @New (C) [97.107b]
What operating privileges does a properly licensed alien amateur have
in the US, if the US and the alien amateur's home country have a
multilateral or bilateral reciprocal operating agreement?
A. All privileges of their home license
B. All privileges of a US Amateur Extra license
C. Those granted by their home license that match US privileges, not
to exceed the operating privileges of an Amateur Extra license
D. Those granted by their home license that match US privileges
authorized to amateurs operating in ITU Region 1
E1C09 @New (D) [97.5c]
From which locations may a licensed alien amateur be a control
operator?
A. Only locations within the boundaries of the 50 United States
B. Only locations listed as the primary station location on a US
amateur license
C. Only locations on ground within the US and its territories; no
shipboard or aeronautical mobile operation is permitted
D. Any location where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC
E1C10 @New (A) [97.5d]
Which of the following multilateral or bilateral operating
arrangements allow US amateurs to operate in many European countries
and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU agreement
D. All these choices are correct
E1C11 @New (B) [97.5e]
Which of the following multilateral or bilateral operating
arrangements allow US amateurs and many Central and South American
amateurs to operate in each others' countries?
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU agreement
D. All of these choices are correct
E1D Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES): definition;
purpose; station registration; station license required; control
operator requirements; control operator privileges; frequencies
available; limitations on use of RACES frequencies; points of
communication for RACES operation; permissible communications
E1D01 @E1D01 (B) [97.3a37]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes.
What is RACES?
A. An amateur network for providing emergency communications during
athletic races
B. The Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
C. The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services
D. An amateur network for providing emergency communications during
boat or aircraft races
E1D02 @E1D02 (A) [97.3a37]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes.
What is the purpose of RACES?
A. To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies
B. To provide emergency communications for boat or aircraft races
C. To provide routine and emergency communications for athletic races
D. To provide routine and emergency military communications
E1D03 @E1D03 (C) [97.407a]
*Modified Q for apparent typo. RACES registration changed to RACES
operation
With what other organization must an amateur station be registered
before RACES operation is permitted?
A. The Amateur Radio Emergency Service
B. The US Department of Defense
C. A civil defense organization
D. The FCC Field Operations Bureau
E1D04 @E1D04 (C) [97.407a]
*Modified B, D to change Novice to Technician.
Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
A. Only Extra class amateur stations
B. Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a
Technician)
C. Any licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil
defense organization
D. Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a
Technician) certified by the responsible civil defense organization
E1D05 @E1D05 (D) [97.21a1]
*Modified A, B, C, D for Rules changes.
Application for modification of a RACES license must be made on what
FCC form, and sent to what FCC office?
A. Form 605, sent to Washington, DC
B. Form 605, sent to Gettysburg, PA
C. Form 610-A, sent to Washington, DC
D. A Club Call Sign Administrator must submit the information to the
FCC in an electronic batch file
E1D06 @E1D06 (D) [97.407a]
Who may be the control operator of a RACES station?
A. Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice
B. Only an Extra class licensee
C. Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice
and is certified by a civil defense organization
D. Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license and is certified by
a civil defense organization
E1D07 @E1D07 (A) [97.407b]
What additional operator privileges are granted to an Extra class
operator registered with RACES?
A. None
B. CW operations on 5167.5 kHz
C. Unattended HF packet-radio station operations
D. 237-MHz civil defense band operations
E1D08 @E1D08 (D) [97.407b]
What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation?
A. Only those frequencies authorized to civil defense organizations
B. Only those frequencies authorized to emergency military
communications
C. Only the top 25 kHz of each amateur frequency band
D. All frequencies available to the amateur service
E1D09 @E1D09 (A) [97.407b]
What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the
frequencies available for RACES operation?
A. An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency
Powers under the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934
B. An emergency in only one state in the US would limit RACES
operations to a single HF frequency band
C. An emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES
operations to a single VHF band
D. An emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life
E1D10 @E1D10 (B) [97.407c,d]
*Modified A to change "Novices" to "Technician class operators."
With what stations may amateur RACES stations communicate?
A. Any RACES stations and any amateur stations except stations
licensed to Technician class operators
B. Any RACES stations and certain other stations authorized by the
responsible civil defense official
C. Any amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications
Service
D. Any amateur station and any military emergency station
E1D11 @E1D11 (C) [97.407e]
What are permissible communications in RACES?
A. Any type of communications when there is no emergency
B. Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications
C. National defense or immediate safety of people and property and
communications authorized by the area civil defense organization
D. National defense and security or immediate safety of people and
property communications authorized by the President
E1E Amateur Satellite Service: definition; purpose; station license
required for space station; frequencies available; telecommand
operation: definition; eligibility; telecommand station (definition);
space telecommand station; special provisions; telemetry: definition;
special provisions; space station: definition; eligibility; special
provisions; authorized frequencies (space station); notification
requirements; earth operation: definition; eligibility {97.209(a)};
authorized frequencies (Earth station)
E1E01 @E1E01 (C) [97.3a3]
What is the Amateur Satellite Service?
A. A radio navigation service using stations on earth satellites for
the same purposes as those of the amateur service
B. A radio communication service using stations on earth satellites
for weather information gathering
C. A radio communication service using stations on earth satellites
for the same purpose as those of the amateur service
D. A radio location service using stations on earth satellites for
amateur radar experimentation
E1E02 @E1E02 (A) [97.207]
Which HF amateur bands have frequencies available for space operation?
A. Only 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m
B. Only 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m and 10 m
C. Only 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m
D. All HF bands, but only in the Extra class segments
E1E03 @New (D) [97.207]
*New question to replace previous possibly defective question.
Which of the following types of communications may space stations
transmit?
A. Automatic retransmission of signals from Earth stations and other
space stations
B. One way communications
C. Telemetry consisting of specially coded messages
D. All of these choices are correct
E1E04 @E1E04 (B) [97.3a44]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes.
What type of amateur station operation transmits communications used
to initiate, modify or terminate the functions of a space station?
A. Space operation
B. Telecommand operation
C. Earth operation
D. Control operation
E1E05 @E1E05 (D) [97.211a]
*Modified A to replace Novice with Technician.
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
A. Any except those of Technician licensees
B. Only those of Extra class licensees
C. Only a station operated by the space station licensee
D. Any station designated by the space station licensee
E1E06 @E1E06 (C) [97.207f]
What term does the FCC use for space-to-earth transmissions used to
communicate the results of measurements made by a space station?
A. Data transmission
B. Frame check sequence
C. Telemetry
D. Telecommand
E1E07 @E1E07 (B) [97.3a40]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes.
What is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station
that is more than 50 km above the earth's surface?
A. EME station operation
B. Space station operation
C. Downlink station operation
D. Ionospheric station operation
E1E08 @E1E08 (D) [97.207a]
*Modified A to change Novice to Technician.
Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation?
A. Any except those of Technician licensees
B. Only those of General, Advanced or Extra class licensees
C. Only those of Extra class licensees
D. Any amateur station
E1E09 @E1E09 (D) [97.207g]
Before initiating space station transmissions, by when must the
licensee of the station give the FCC prior written pre-space
notification?
A. Before 3 months and before 72 hours
B. Before 6 months and before 3 months
C. Before 12 months and before 3 months
D. Before 27 months and before 5 months
E1E10 @E1E10 (C) [97.207h]
After space station transmissions are initiated, by when must the
licensee of the station give the FCC written in-space notification?
A. Within 24 hours
B. Within 72 hours
C. Within 7 days
D. Within 30 days
E1E11 @E1E11 (D) [97.207i]
After space station transmissions are terminated, by when must the
licensee of the station normally give the FCC written post-space
notification?
A. No later than 48 hours
B. No later than 72 hours
C. No later than 7 days
D. No later than 3 months
E1E12 @E1E12 (B) [97.3a16]
*Modified Rules citation for Rules changes.
What term describes an amateur station located on or within 50 km of
earth's surface intended for communications with space stations?
A. Telecommand station
B. Earth station
C. Telemetry station
D. Auxiliary station
E1F Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs): definition; VEC
qualifications; VEC agreement; scheduling examinations; coordinating
VEs; reimbursement for expenses {97.527}; accrediting VEs; question
pools; Volunteer Examiners (VEs): definition; requirements;
accreditation; reimbursement for expenses; VE conduct; preparing an
examination; examination elements; definition of code and written
elements; preparation responsibility; examination requirements;
examination credit; examination procedure; examination administration;
temporary operating authority
E1F01 @E1F01 (C) [97.521]
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur license
examinations
B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur license
examinations
C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
coordinate amateur license examinations given by Volunteer Examiners
D. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
coordinate the preparation of amateur license examinations
E1F02 @E1F02 (A) [97.519, 97.521, 97.523]
*Modified B for Rules changes
Which of the following is NOT among the functions of a VEC?
A. Prepare and administer amateur operator license examinations,
grade examinee's answers and inform examinees of their pass/fail
results
B. Collect FCC Forms 605 documents and test results from the
administering VEs
C. Assure that all desiring an amateur operator license examination
are registered without regard to race, sex, religion or national
origin
D. Cooperate in maintaining a pool of questions for each written
amateur examination element
E1F03 @E1F03 (B) [97.521]
Which of the following is NOT among the qualifying requirements to be
a VEC?
A. Be an organization that exists for the purpose of furthering the
amateur service
B. Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur station
equipment or amateur license preparation materials
C. Agree to coordinate examinations for all classes of amateur
operator licenses
D. Agree to administer amateur operator license examinations in
accordance with FCC Rules throughout at least one call-letter district
E1F04 @E1F06 (B) [97.519a]
*Modified Q for awkward sentence (preparing to preparation)
What organization coordinates the preparation and administration of
amateur license examinations?
A. The FCC
B. A VEC
C. A group of three or more volunteers
D. A local radio club
E1F05 @E1F09 (A) [97.525a4]
Under what circumstances may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a
Volunteer Examiner?
A. If the VEC determines that questions of the person's integrity or
honesty could compromise amateur license examinations
B. If the VEC determines that the person is a Volunteer Examiner for
another VEC
C. If the prospective VE is not a member of a club actively engaged
in the preparation and administration of amateur license examinations
D. If the prospective VE is a citizen of a foreign country
E1F06 @E1F11 (C) [97.523]
Where are the questions listed that must be used in all written US
amateur license examinations?
A. In the instructions each VEC gives to their VEs
B. In an FCC-maintained question pool
C. In the VEC-maintained question pool
D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
E1F07 @E1G01 (B) [97.525]
What is an accredited VE?
A. An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow VEs to
administer amateur license examinations
B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur
operator license examinations
C. An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations
for a fee
D. An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to
administer amateur license examinations
E1F08 @E1G02 (D) [97.509b1, 97.525]
What is the VE accreditation process?
A. General and higher class licensees are automatically allowed to
conduct amateur license examinations once their license is granted
B. The FCC tests volunteers who wish to conduct amateur license
examinations
C. A prospective VE requests permission from three or more already
accredited VEs to administer amateur license examinations
D. Each VEC ensures its Volunteer Examiner applicants meet FCC
requirements to serve as VEs
E1F09 @E1G04 (C) [97.509b4]
Which persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited?
A. Persons holding less than an Advanced class license
B. Persons less than 21 years of age
C. Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or
revoked
D. Persons who are employees of the federal government
E1F10 @E1G08 (A) [97.527a]
For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket
expenses?
A. Preparing, processing or administering amateur license
examinations
B. Teaching and administering amateur license study courses
C. None; a VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses
D. Purchasing and distributing amateur license preparation materials
E1F11 @E1G09 (A) [97.509e, 97.527b]
How much money beyond reimbursement for out-of-pocket expenses may a
person accept for serving as a VE?
A. None
B. Up to the national minimum hourly wage times the number of hours
spent serving as a VE
C. Up to the maximum fee per applicant set by the FCC each year
D. As much as applicants are willing to donate
E1F12 @E1G10 (B) [97.507a, b, c]
*Modified Q, B for Rules changes
Who may prepare an Element 2 amateur operator license examination?
A. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
B. A Technician, General, Advanced, or Extra class VE or a qualified
supplier that selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
C. An Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC
bulletin
D. The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question
pool
E1F13 @E1G11 (C) [97.507a, b, c]
*Modified Q, A for Rules changes
Who may prepare an Element 3 amateur operator license examination?
A. Only an Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate
FCC bulletin
B. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
C. An Advanced or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that selects
questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
D. The, FCC which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question
pool
E1F14 @E1G12 (D) [97.507a, b, c]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
Who may prepare an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
A. The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question
pool
B. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
C. An Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC
bulletin
D. An Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions
from the appropriate VEC question pool
E1F15 @E1H01 (C) [97.505a6]
What amateur operator license examination credit must be given for a
valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)?
A. Only the written elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed
B. Only the telegraphy elements the CSCE indicates the examinee
passed
C. Each element the CSCE indicates the examinee passed
D. No credit
E1F16 @E1H02 (A) [97.509c]
Where must Volunteer Examiners be while they are conducting an amateur
license examination?
A. They must all be present and observing the candidate(s) throughout
the entire examination
B. They must all leave the room after handing out the exams to allow
the candidate(s) to concentrate on the exam material
C. They may be anywhere as long as at least one VE is present and is
observing the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination
D. They may be anywhere as long as they are listed as having
participated in the examination
E1F17 @E1H03 (C) [97.509c]
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision
during an amateur operator license examination session?
A. The VEC coordinating the session
B. The FCC
C. The administering Volunteer Examiners
D. The Volunteer Examiner in charge of the session
E1F18 @E1H04 (B) [97.509c]
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's
instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in
termination of the examination
B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate
the results
D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
E1F19 @E1H05 (C) [97.509h]
What must be done with the test papers of each element completed by
the candidates(s) at an amateur operator license examination?
A. They must be collected and graded by the administering VEs within
10 days of the examination
B. They must be collected and sent to the coordinating VEC for
grading within 10 days of the examination
C. They must be collected and graded immediately by the administering
VEs
D. They must be collected and sent to the FCC for grading within 10
days of the examination
E1F20 @E1H06 (A) [97.509j]
What must the VEs do if an examinee for an amateur operator license
does not score a passing grade on all examination elements needed for
an upgrade?
A. Return the application document to the examinee and inform the
examinee of the grade(s)
B. Return the application document to the examinee and inform the
examinee which questions were incorrectly answered
C. Simply inform the examinee of the failure(s)
D. Inform the examinee which questions were incorrectly answered and
show how the questions should have been answered
E1G Type acceptance of external RF power amplifiers and external RF
power amplifier kits; Line A; National Radio Quiet Zone; business
communications; definition and operation of spread spectrum; auxiliary
station operation
E1G01 @A1C01 (D) [97.315a]
How many external RF amplifiers of a particular design capable of
operation below 144 MHz may an unlicensed, non-amateur build or modify
in one calendar year without obtaining a grant of Certification?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. None
E1G02 @A1C02 (B) [97.315c]
If an RF amplifier manufacturer was granted Certification for one of
its amplifier models for amateur use, what would this allow the
manufacturer to market?
A. All current models of their equipment
B. Only that particular amplifier model
C. Any future amplifier models
D. Both the current and any future amplifier models
E1G03 @A1C03 (A) [97.315b5]
Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF power
amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been
granted FCC certification?
A. If it was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and
is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
B. If it was assembled from a kit by the equipment dealer
C. If it was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not
require type acceptance of RF power amplifiers
D. If it was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it
was type accepted by that country's government
E1G04 @A1C04 (D) [97.317a1]
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC
Certification?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5
watts of mean RF input power
B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and
output networks
C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when operated at
its full output power
E1G05 @A1C05 (D) [97.317a2]
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of
Certification?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5
watts of mean RF input power
B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and
output networks
C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when placed in the
"standby" or "off" position, but is still connected to the transmitter
E1G06 @A1C06 (C) [97.317b]
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of
Certification?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5
watts of mean RF input power
B. It must exhibit a gain of at least 20 dB for any input signal
C. It must not be capable of operation on any frequency between 24
MHz and 35 MHz
D. Any spurious emissions from the amplifier must be no more than 40
dB stronger than the desired output signal
E1G07 @A1C07 (B) [97.317a3]
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of
Certification?
A. It must have a time-delay circuit to prevent it from operating
continuously for more than ten minutes
B. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when driven with
at least 50 W mean RF power (unless a higher drive level is specified)
C. It must not be capable of modification by an amateur operator
without voiding the warranty
D. It must exhibit no more than 6 dB of gain over its entire
operating range
E1G08 @A1C08 (A) [97.317c1]
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier
from being granted Certification?
A. Any accessible wiring which, when altered, would permit operation
of the amplifier in a manner contrary to FCC Rules
B. Failure to include a schematic diagram and theory of operation
manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier
C. The capability of being switched by the operator to any amateur
frequency below 24 MHz
D. Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by at
least 50 watts of mean input power
E1G09 @A1C09 (C) [97.317c8]
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier
from being granted Certification?
A. Failure to include controls or adjustments that would permit the
amplifier to operate on any frequency below 24 MHz
B. Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by at
least 50 watts of mean input power
C. Any features designed to facilitate operation in a
telecommunication service other than the Amateur Service
D. The omission of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual
that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier
E1G10 @A1C10 (D) [97.317c3]
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier
from being granted Certification?
A. The omission of a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply
to turn off the power if the cabinet is opened
B. Failure of the amplifier to exhibit more than 15 dB of gain over
its entire operating range
C. The omission of a time-delay circuit to prevent the amplifier from
operating continuously for more than ten minutes
D. The inclusion of instructions for operation or modification of the
amplifier in a manner contrary to the FCC Rules
E1G11 @A1C11 (B) [97.317b2]
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier
from being granted Certification?
A. Failure to include a safety switch in the high-voltage power
supply to turn off the power if the cabinet is opened
B. The amplifier produces 3 dB of gain for input signals between 26
MHz and 28 MHz
C. The inclusion of a schematic diagram and theory of operation
manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier
D. The amplifier produces 1500 watts of output power when driven by
at least 50 watts of mean input power
SUBELEMENT E2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups]
E2A Amateur Satellites: Orbital mechanics; Frequencies available for
satellite operation; Satellite hardware; Operating through amateur
satellites
E2A01 @E2A01 (C)
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From west to east
B. From east to west
C. From south to north
D. From north to south
E2A02 @E2A02 (A)
What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From north to south
B. From west to east
C. From east to west
D. From south to north
E2A03 @E2A03 (C)
What is the period of an amateur satellite?
A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
C. The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit
D. The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
E2A04 @E2A04 (D)
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for
Mode A in amateur satellite operations?
A. Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters
B. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2
meters
C. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10
meters
D. Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters
E2A05 @E2A05 (B)
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for
Mode B in amateur satellite operations?
A. Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters
B. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2
meters
C. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10
meters
D. Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters
E2A06 @E2A06 (C)
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for
Mode J in amateur satellite operations?
A. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2
meters
B. Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters
C. Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 70
centimeters
D. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and transmitting on 10
meters
E2A07 @E2A07 (D)
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for
Mode L in amateur satellite operations?
A. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10
meters
B. Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 70
centimeters
C. Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 23
centimeters
D. Satellite receiving on 23 centimeters and retransmitting on 70
centimeters
E2A08 @E2A08 (B)
What is a linear transponder?
A. A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals
B. A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a
certain passband
C. An amplifier that varies its output linearly in response to input
signals
D. A device which responds to satellite telecommands and is used to
activate a linear sequence of events
E2A09 @E2A09 (D)
What is the name of the effect which causes the downlink frequency of
a satellite to vary by several kHz during a low-earth orbit because
the distance between the satellite and ground station is changing?
A. The Kepler effect
B. The Bernoulli effect
C. The Einstein effect
D. The Doppler effect
E2A10 @E2A10 (A)
Why does the received signal from a Phase 3 amateur satellite exhibit
a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect?
A. Because the satellite is rotating
B. Because of ionospheric absorption
C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
D. Because of the Doppler effect
E2A11 @E2A11 (B)
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin
modulation and Faraday rotation?
A. A nonpolarized antenna
B. A circularly polarized antenna
C. An isotropic antenna
D. A log-periodic dipole array
E2B Television: fast scan television (FSTV) standards; slow scan
television (SSTV) standards; facsimile (fax) communications
E2B01 @E2B01 (A)
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan
television system?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
E2B02 @E2B02 (C)
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 1050
E2B03 @E2B03 (D)
How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan
television system?
A. By scanning the field from top to bottom
B. By scanning the field from bottom to top
C. By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in
the next
D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones
in the next
E2B04 @E2B04 (B)
What is blanking in a video signal?
A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to
left and from bottom to top
C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern
E2B05 @E2B06 (D)
What is the bandwidth of a vestigial sideband AM fast-scan television
transmission?
A. 3 kHz
B. 10 kHz
C. 25 kHz
D. 6 MHz
E2B06 @E2B07 (C)
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black?
A. 0%
B. 12.5%
C. 70%
D. 100%
E2B07 @E2B09 (C)
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
A. 0%
B. 12.5%
C. 75%
D. 100%
E2B08 @E2B11 (A)
Which of the following is NOT a common method of transmitting
accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
A. Amplitude modulation of the video carrier
B. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
C. A separate VHF or UHF audio link
D. Frequency modulation of the video carrier
E2B09 @A2A01 (D)
What is facsimile?
A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a
picture when printed
B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television
C. The transmission of video by amateur television
D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on
paper
E2B10 @A2A02 (A)
What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture
transmitted by an amateur station?
A. 240 lines per minute
B. 50 lines per minute
C. 150 lines per second
D. 60 lines per second
E2B11 @A2A03 (B)
What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a facsimile
picture transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm?
A. 6 minutes
B. 3.3 minutes
C. 6 seconds
D. 1/60 second
E2B12 @A2A05 (C)
In facsimile, what device converts variations in picture brightness
and darkness into voltage variations?
A. An LED
B. A Hall-effect transistor
C. A photodetector
D. An optoisolator
E2C Contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions;
automatic HF forwarding.
E2C01 @E2C01 (A)
What would be the ideal operating strategy for a worldwide DX contest
during a solar minimum instead of a solar maximum?
A. 160-40 meters would be emphasized during the evening; 20 meters
during daylight hours
B. There would be little to no strategic difference
C. 80 meters would support worldwide communication during mid-day
hours
D. 10 and 15 meters should be tried one hour before sunset
E2C02 @E2C02 (A)
When operating during a contest, which of these standards should you
generally follow?
A. Always listen before transmitting, be courteous and do not cause
harmful interference to other communications
B. Always reply to other stations calling CQ at least as many times
as you call CQ
C. When initiating a contact, always reply with the call sign of the
station you are calling followed by your own call sign
D. Always include your signal report, name and transmitter power
output in any exchange with another station
E2C03 @E2C03 (B)
What is one of the main purposes for holding on-the-air operating
contests?
A. To test the dollar-to-feature value of station equipment during
difficult operating circumstances
B. To enhance the communicating and operating skills of amateurs in
readiness for an emergency
C. To measure the ionospheric capacity for refracting RF signals
under varying conditions
D. To demonstrate to the FCC that amateur station operation is
possible during difficult operating circumstances
E2C04 @E2C04 (C)
Which of the following is typical of operations during an
international amateur DX contest?
A. Calling CQ is always done on an odd minute and listening is always
done on an even minute
B. Contacting a DX station is best accomplished when the WWV K index
is above a reading of 8
C. Some DX operators use split frequency operations (transmitting on
a frequency different from the receiving frequency)
D. DX contacts during the day are never possible because of known
band attenuation from the sun
E2C05 @E2C05 (D)
If a DX station asks for your grid square locator, what should be your
reply?
A. The square of the power fed to the grid of your final amplifier
and your current city, state and country
B. The DX station's call sign followed by your call sign and your RST
signal report
C. The subsection of the IARU region in which you are located based
upon dividing the entire region into a grid of squares 10 km wide
D. Your geographic "Maidenhead" grid location (e.g., FN31AA) based on
your current latitude and longitude
E2C06 @E2C06 (A)
What does a "Maidenhead" grid square refer to?
A. A two-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, as part of a
world wide numbering system
B. A one-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, beginning at
the South Pole
C. An antenna made of wire grid used to amplify low-angle incoming
signals while reducing high-angle incoming signals
D. An antenna consisting of a screen or grid positioned directly
beneath the radiating element
E2C07 @E2C08 (C)
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to
find the highest level of contest activity?
A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for
contests
B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling
frequency
C. At the bottom of each band, usually in the weak signal segment
D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national
calling frequency
E2C08 @E2C09 (D)
Which of the following frequency ranges is reserved by "gentlemen's
agreement" for DX contacts during international 6-meter contests?
A. 50.000 to 50.025 MHz
B. 50.050 to 50.075 MHz
C. 50.075 to 50.100 MHz
D. 50.100 to 50.125 MHz
E2C09 @E2C10 (C)
If you are in the US calling a station in Texas on a frequency of 1832
kHz and a station replies that you are "in the window," what does this
mean?
A. You are operating out of the band privileges of your license
B. You are calling at the wrong time of day to be within the window
of frequencies that can be received in Texas at that time
C. You are transmitting in a frequency segment that is reserved for
international DX contacts by "gentlemen's agreement"
D. Your modulation has reached an undesirable level and you are
interfering with another contact
E2C10 @A2A10 (A)
Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant to interference?
A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed
in the receiver
B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its
signal from being easily overpowered
C. The receiver is always equipped with a special digital signal
processor (DSP) interference filter
D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to change frequencies
E2C11 @A2A11 (D)
How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work?
A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to change frequencies
B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an
RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
D. The frequency of an RF carrier is changed very rapidly according
to a particular pseudo-random sequence
E2C12 @A2A12 (C)
What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?
A. 48 bauds
B. 110 bauds
C. 300 bauds
D. 1200 bauds
E2D Digital Operating: HF digital communications (ie, PacTOR, CLOVER,
AMTOR, PSK31, HF packet); packet clusters; HF digital bulletin boards
E2D01 @E2D01 (B)
What is the most common method of transmitting data emissions below 30
MHz?
A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
B. FSK (frequency-shift keying) of an RF carrier
C. AFSK (audio frequency-shift keying) of an FM signal
D. Key-operated on/off switching of an RF carrier
E2D02 @E2D02 (A)
What do the letters "FEC" mean as they relate to AMTOR operation?
A. Forward Error Correction
B. First Error Correction
C. Fatal Error Correction
D. Final Error Correction
E2D03 @E2D03 (C)
How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
A. By transmitting blocks of 3 data characters from the sending
station to the receiving station which the receiving station
acknowledges
B. By transmitting a special FEC algorithm which the receiving
station uses for data validation
C. By transmitting each data character twice, since there is no
specific acknowledgment of reception
D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according
to a predefined algorithm
E2D04 @E2D04 (B)
What does "CMD:" mean when it is displayed on the video monitor of a
packet station?
A. The TNC is ready to exit the packet terminal program
B. The TNC is in command mode, ready to receive instructions from the
keyboard
C. The TNC will exit to the command mode on the next keystroke
D. The TNC is in KISS mode running TCP/IP, ready for the next command
E2D05 @E2D05 (D)
What is the Baudot code?
A. A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data
systems using seven data bits
B. A binary code consisting of eight data bits
C. An alternate name for Morse code
D. The "International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2" (ITA2) which uses
five data bits
E2D06 @E2D06 (A)
If an oscilloscope is connected to a TNC or terminal unit and is
displaying two crossed ellipses, one of which suddenly disappears,
what would this indicate about the observed signal?
A. The phenomenon known as "selective fading" has occurred
B. One of the signal filters has saturated
C. The receiver should be retuned, as it has probably moved at least
5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
D. The mark and space signal have been inverted and the receiving
equipment has not yet responded to the change
E2D07 @E2D07 (D)
Which of the following systems is used to transmit high-quality still
images by radio?
A. AMTOR
B. Baudot RTTY
C. AMTEX
D. Facsimile
E2D08 @E2D08 (C)
What special restrictions are imposed on facsimile (fax)
transmissions?
A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and
28.945 MHz
C. They are allowed in phone band segments if their bandwidth is no
greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz
E2D09 @E2D09 (D)
What is the name for a bulletin transmission system that includes a
special header to allow receiving stations to determine if the
bulletin has been previously received?
A. ARQ mode A
B. FEC mode B
C. AMTOR
D. AMTEX
E2D10 @E2D10 (A)
What is a Packet Cluster Bulletin Board?
A. A packet bulletin board devoted primarily to serving a special
interest group
B. A group of general-purpose packet bulletin boards linked together
in a "cluster"
C. A special interest cluster of packet bulletin boards devoted
entirely to packet radio computer communications
D. A special interest telephone/modem bulletin board devoted to
amateur DX operations
E2D11 @E2D11 (C)
Which of the following statements comparing HF and 2-meter packet
operations is NOT true?
A. HF packet typically uses an FSK signal with a data rate of 300
bauds; 2-meter packet uses an AFSK signal with a data rate of 1200
bauds
B. HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use the same code for
information exchange
C. HF packet is limited to Extra class amateur licensees; 2 meter
packet is open to all but Novice class amateur licensees
D. HF packet operations are limited to "CW/Data"-only band segments;
2-meter packet is allowed wherever FM operations are allowed
SUBELEMENT E3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]
E3A Earth-Moon-Earth (EME or moonbounce) communications; meteor
scatter
E3A01 @E3A01 (D)
What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by
moonbounce?
A. 500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
B. 2000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee
C. 5000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
D. Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window
E3A02 @E3A02 (B)
What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal?
A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
B. A fluttery, rapid irregular fading
C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
D. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the
transmitted signal
E3A03 @E3A03 (A)
What are the best days to schedule EME contacts?
A. When the moon is at perigee
B. When the moon is full
C. When the moon is at apogee
D. When the weather at both stations is clear
E3A04 @E3A04 (D)
What type of receiving system is required for EME communications?
A. Equipment with very low power output
B. Equipment with very low dynamic range
C. Equipment with very low gain
D. Equipment with very low noise figures
E3A05 @E3A05 (A)
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz
when attempting an earth-moon-earth contact?
A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two
minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute
and then receives for the following one minute
C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for
a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five
minutes and then receives for the following five minutes
E3A06 @E3A06 (C)
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz
when attempting an EME contact?
A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two
minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute
and then receives for the following one minute
C. Two and one half minute sequences, where one station transmits for
a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
D. Five minute sequences, where one station transmits for five
minutes and then receives for the following five minutes
E3A07 @E3A07 (B)
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in
the 2-meter band?
A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz
B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz
C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz
D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3A08 @E3A08 (D)
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in
the 70-cm band?
A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz
B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz
C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz
D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz
E3A09 @E3A09 (A)
When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical
region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
A. The E layer
B. The F1 layer
C. The F2 layer
D. The D layer
E3A10 @E3A10 (C)
Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz
B. 10 - 14 MHz
C. 28 - 148 MHz
D. 220 - 450 MHz
E3A11 @E3A11 (C)
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz
when attempting a meteor-scatter contact?
A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two
minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute
and then receives for the following one minute
C. 15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds
and then receives for the following 15 seconds
D. 30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds
and then receives for the following 30 seconds
E3B Transequatorial; long path; gray line
E3B01 @E3B01 (A)
What is transequatorial propagation?
A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance
north and south of the magnetic equator
B. Propagation between two points at approximately the same latitude
on the magnetic equator
C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the
magnetic equator
D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
E3B02 @E3B02 (C)
What is the approximate maximum range for signals using
transequatorial propagation?
A. 1000 miles
B. 2500 miles
C. 5000 miles
D. 7500 miles
E3B03 @E3B03 (C)
What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
A. Morning
B. Noon
C. Afternoon or early evening
D. Late at night
E3B04 @E3B04 (A)
What type of propagation is probably occurring if a beam antenna must
be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive
the strongest signals?
A. Long-path
B. Sporadic-E
C. Transequatorial
D. Auroral
E3B05 @E3B05 (D)
On what amateur bands can long-path propagation provide signal
enhancement?
A. 160 to 40 meters
B. 30 to 10 meters
C. 160 to 10 meters
D. 160 to 6 meters
E3B06 @E3B06 (B)
What amateur band consistently yields long-path enhancement using a
modest antenna of relatively high gain?
A. 80 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 6 meters
E3B07 @E3B07 (D)
What is the typical reason for hearing an echo on the received signal
of a station in Europe while directing your HF antenna toward the
station?
A. The station's transmitter has poor frequency stability
B. The station's transmitter is producing spurious emissions
C. Auroral conditions are causing a direct and a long-path reflected
signal to be received
D. There are two signals being received, one from the most direct
path and one from long-path propagation
E3B08 @E3B08 (D)
What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel
along the earth's terminator?
A. Transequatorial
B. Sporadic-E
C. Long-path
D. Gray-line
E3B09 @E3B09 (A)
At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent?
A. Twilight, at sunrise and sunset
B. When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting
station
C. When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the
communications path between the two stations
D. When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving
station
E3B10 @E3B10 (B)
What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
A. At midday the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the
ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
B. At twilight solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric
ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF
C. At darkness solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric
ionization remains steady
D. At midafternoon the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio
wave refraction and the MUF
E3B11 @E3B11 (C)
What communications are possible during gray-line propagation?
A. Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band
B. Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands
C. Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands
D. Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 10- and 15-meter
bands
E3C Auroral propagation; selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-
off angle over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects on propagation
E3C01 @A3A05 (D)
What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications?
A. The readability of SSB signals increases
B. FM communications are clearer
C. CW signals have a clearer tone
D. CW signals have a fluttery tone
E3C02 @A3A06 (C)
What is the cause of auroral activity?
A. A high sunspot level
B. A low sunspot level
C. The emission of charged particles from the sun
D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E3C03 @A3A08 (D)
Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
A. At F-region height
B. In the equatorial band
C. At D-region height
D. At E-region height
E3C04 @A3A09 (A)
Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?
A. CW and SSB
B. SSB and FM
C. FM and CW
D. RTTY and AM
E3C05 @A3B01 (B)
What causes selective fading?
A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
B. Phase differences between radio-wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
C. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving
station ordinarily occurring shortly after either sunrise or sunset
D. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations
E3C06 @A3B03 (B)
Which emission modes suffer the most from selective fading?
A. CW and SSB
B. FM and double sideband AM
C. SSB and AMTOR
D. SSTV and CW
E3C07 @A3B04 (A)
How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective
fading?
A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
B. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
C. It is the same for both narrow and wide bandwidths
D. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect
E3C08 @A3B06 (A)
How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed
the geometric horizon?
A. By approximately 15% of the distance
B. By approximately twice the distance
C. By approximately one-half the distance
D. By approximately four times the distance
E3C09 @A3B07 (B)
For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how
does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat ground?
A. It increases with increasing height
B. It decreases with increasing height
C. It does not vary with height
D. It depends on E-region height, not antenna height
E3C10 @A3B09 (B)
What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels
for some distance within the F2 region?
A. Oblique-angle ray
B. Pedersen ray
C. Ordinary ray
D. Heaviside ray
E3C11 @A3B11 (C)
What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over
500 miles?
A. D-region absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce
E3C12 @A3B12 (A)
What happens to an electromagnetic wave as it encounters air molecules
and other particles?
A. The wave loses kinetic energy
B. The wave gains kinetic energy
C. An aurora is created
D. Nothing happens because the waves have no physical substance
SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions -- 5
Groups]
E4A Test equipment: spectrum analyzers (interpreting spectrum
analyzer displays; transmitter output spectrum); logic probes
(indications of high and low states in digital circuits; indications
of pulse conditions in digital circuits)
E4A01 @E4A01 (C)
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain
oscilloscope?
A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an
oscilloscope displays electrical signals
B. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the time domain; an
oscilloscope displays signals in the frequency domain
C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an
oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope
displays audio frequencies
E4A02 @E4A02 (D)
What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
A. Amplitude
B. Voltage
C. Resonance
D. Frequency
E4A03 @E4A03 (A)
What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
A. Amplitude
B. Duration
C. Frequency
D. Time
E4A04 @E4A04 (A)
Which test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio
transmitter?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A wattmeter
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer
E4A05 @E4A05 (B)
Which test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion
products from an SSB transmitter?
A. A wattmeter
B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer
E4A06 @E4A06 (C)
Which of the following is NOT something you would determine with a
spectrum analyzer?
A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2-
meter duplexer
B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone
frequency
C. The speed at which a transceiver switches from transmit to receive
when being used for packet radio
D. The spectral output of a transmitter
E4A07 @E4A07 (B)
What is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the
output from a VHF transmitter?
A. There are no advantages; an inexpensive oscilloscope can display
the same information
B. It displays all frequency components of the transmitted signal
C. It displays a time-varying representation of the modulation
envelope
D. It costs much less than any other instrumentation useful for such
measurements
E4A08 @E4A08 (D)
What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring
the status of a logic circuit?
A. It has many more leads to connect to the circuit than a voltmeter
B. It can be used to test analog and digital circuits
C. It can read logic circuit voltage more accurately than a voltmeter
D. It is smaller and shows a simplified readout
E4A09 @E4A09 (C)
Which test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low
digital states?
A. An ohmmeter
B. An electroscope
C. A logic probe
D. A Wheatstone bridge
E4A10 @E4A10 (D)
What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit?
A. A short-circuit fault
B. An open-circuit fault
C. The resistance between logic modules
D. The high and low logic states
E4A11 @E4A11 (A)
Which test instrument besides an oscilloscope is used to indicate
pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit?
A. A logic probe
B. An ohmmeter
C. An electroscope
D. A Wheatstone bridge
E4B Frequency measurement devices (i.e., frequency counter,
oscilloscope Lissajous figures, dip meter); meter performance
limitations; oscilloscope performance limitations; frequency counter
performance limitations
E4B01 @A4A01 (B)
What is a frequency standard?
A. A frequency chosen by a net control operator for net operations
B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz
D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies
E4B02 @A4A02 (A)
What does a frequency counter do?
A. It makes frequency measurements
B. It produces a reference frequency
C. It measures FM transmitter deviation
D. It generates broad-band white noise
E4B03 @A4B04 (B)
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a
frequency counter?
A. Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base
stability
B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability
C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time
base stability
D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and
temperature coefficient of the logic
E4B04 @A4B05 (C)
How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?
A. By using slower digital logic
B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response
C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base
D. By using faster digital logic
E4B05 @A4B06 (C)
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 165.2 Hz
B. 14.652 kHz
C. 146.52 Hz
D. 1.4652 MHz
E4B06 @A4B07 (A)
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 14.652 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 1.4652 Hz
D. 1.4652 kHz
E4B07 @A4B08 (D)
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 146.52 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 146.52 kHz
D. 1465.20 Hz
E4B08 @A4B09 (D)
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads
432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 43.21 MHz
B. 10 Hz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 432.1 Hz
E4B09 @A4B10 (A)
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads
432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 43.21 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 432.1 Hz
D. 0.2 MHz
E4B10 @A4B11 (C)
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads
432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 10 MHz
B. 10 Hz
C. 4321 Hz
D. 432.1 Hz
E4B11 @A4A03 (C)
If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscope
and a 150 Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type of
Lissajous figure should be displayed on the screen?
A. A looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150 loops
vertically
B. A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high
C. A looping pattern with 3 loops horizontally and 2 loops vertically
D. An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high
E4B12 @A4A04 (C)
What is a dip-meter?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An SWR meter
C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
D. A marker generator
E4B13 @A4A05 (D)
What does a dip-meter do?
A. It accurately indicates signal strength
B. It measures frequency accurately
C. It measures transmitter output power accurately
D. It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit
E4B14 @A4A06 (B)
How does a dip-meter function?
A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize a detector
coil
B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered
current
C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current
D. Harmonics from an oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit
Q
E4B15 @A4A07 (D)
What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station?
A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure
percentage of modulation
B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of
modulation
C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance
D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a
tuned circuit resonant frequency
E4B16 @A4A08 (B)
What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit
being checked?
A. Resistive and inductive
B. Inductive and capacitive
C. Resistive and capacitive
D. Strong field
E4B17 @A4A09 (A)
For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with a
tuned circuit being checked?
A. As loosely as possible
B. As tightly as possible
C. First loosely, then tightly
D. With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked
E4B18 @A4B02 (A)
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of
an oscilloscope?
A. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and the linearity and
bandwidth of the deflection amplifiers
B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage
C. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face voltage
increments
D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency
increments
E4C Receiver performance characteristics (i.e., phase noise,
desensitization, capture effect, intercept point, noise floor, dynamic
range {blocking and IMD}, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-
ratio); intermodulation and cross-modulation interference
E4C01 @A4C01 (D)
What is the effect of excessive phase noise in a receiver local
oscillator?
A. It limits the receiver ability to receive strong signals
B. It reduces the receiver sensitivity
C. It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortion
dynamic range
D. It allows strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with
reception of weak signals
E4C02 @A4C02 (A)
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a
strong signal near the received frequency?
A. Desensitization
B. Quieting
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Squelch gain rollback
E4C03 @A4C03 (B)
What causes receiver desensitization?
A. Audio gain adjusted too low
B. Strong adjacent-channel signals
C. Squelch gain adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low
E4C04 @A4C04 (A)
What is one way receiver desensitization can be reduced?
A. Shield the receiver from the transmitter causing the problem
B. Increase the transmitter audio gain
C. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
D. Increase the receiver bandwidth
E4C05 @A4C05 (C)
What is the capture effect?
A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
B. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
C. The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal
D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal
E4C06 @A4C06 (C)
What is the term for the blocking of one FM-phone signal by another
stronger FM-phone signal?
A. Desensitization
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Capture effect
D. Frequency discrimination
E4C07 @A4C07 (A)
With which emission type is capture effect most pronounced?
A. FM
B. SSB
C. AM
D. CW
E4C08 @A4C08 (D)
What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver?
A. The weakest signal that can be detected under noisy atmospheric
conditions
B. The amount of phase noise generated by the receiver local
oscillator
C. The minimum level of noise that will overload the receiver RF
amplifier stage
D. The weakest signal that can be detected above the receiver
internal noise
E4C09 @A4C09 (B)
What is the blocking dynamic range of a receiver that has an 8-dB
noise figure and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz if the blocking level (1-dB
compression point) is -20 dBm?
A. -119 dBm
B. 119 dB
C. 146 dB
D. -146 dBm
E4C10 @E4B11 (C)
What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver?
A. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to
which the receiver can be tuned
B. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver,
referenced to one milliwatt
C. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest
tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products
D. The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the
highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning knob
E4C11 @E4B12 (A)
What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a
communications receiver?
A. Cross modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from
strong adjacent signals
B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of
ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted
C. Cross modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio
power to operate the speaker
D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the
strongest received signals
E4C12 @A4C10 (B)
What part of a superheterodyne receiver determines the image rejection
ratio of the receiver?
A. Product detector
B. RF amplifier
C. AGC loop
D. IF filter
E4C13 @A4C11 (B)
If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you be measuring?
A. The meter display sensitivity (MDS), or the responsiveness of the
receiver S-meter to all signals
B. The minimum discernible signal (MDS), or the weakest signal that
the receiver can detect
C. The minimum distorting signal (MDS), or the strongest signal the
receiver can detect without overloading
D. The maximum detectable spectrum (MDS), or the lowest to highest
frequency range of the receiver
E4C14 @A4D02 (B)
How does intermodulation interference between two repeater
transmitters usually occur?
A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase
from airplanes passing overhead
B. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or
both of their final amplifiers
C. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in
one or both of their final amplifiers
D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from
airplanes passing overhead
E4C15 @A4D03 (B)
How can intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters
in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated?
A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power
B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the
feed line to the transmitter and duplexer
C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line
E4C16 @A4D09 (A)
If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product
signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are
the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal?
A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
D. 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz
E4D Noise suppression: ignition noise; alternator noise (whine);
electronic motor noise; static; line noise
E4D01 @E4C01 (A)
What is one of the most significant problems associated with mobile
transceivers?
A. Ignition noise
B. Doppler shift
C. Radar interference
D. Mechanical vibrations
E4D02 @E4C02 (A)
What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a
mobile transceiver?
A. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
B. Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other
C. Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces
D. Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring
E4D03 @E4C03 (C)
Where can ferrite beads be installed to suppress ignition noise in a
mobile transceiver?
A. In the resistive high-voltage cable
B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor
C. In the primary and secondary ignition leads
D. In the antenna lead to the transceiver
E4D04 @E4C04 (C)
How can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting metal
surfaces in a vehicle reduce ignition noise?
A. It reduces the frequency of the ignition spark
B. It helps radiate the ignition noise away from the vehicle
C. It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the vehicle
D. It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body
E4D05 @E4C05 (B)
How can alternator whine be minimized?
A. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the
longest possible path
B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the
shortest possible path
C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's DC
power lead to the vehicle's electrical system
D. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead
E4D06 @E4C06 (D)
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile
alternator be suppressed?
A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead
and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
B. By connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible
path and installing a blocking capacitor in both leads
C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power
lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and
by installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads
E4D07 @E4C09 (B)
How can you reduce noise from an electric motor?
A. Install a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor
B. Install a brute-force, AC-line filter in series with the motor
leads
C. Install a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
D. Use a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to
power the motor
E4D08 @E4C07 (B)
What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
A. Sunspots
B. Thunderstorms
C. Airplanes
D. Meteor showers
E4D09 @E4C08 (C)
How can you determine if a line-noise interference problem is being
generated within your home?
A. Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer
B. Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope
C. Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-operated
radio
D. Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer
E4D10 @E4C10 (A)
What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio
transmitter?
A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
B. An electrical-sparking signal
C. A differential-mode signal at the AC-line frequency
D. Harmonics of the AC-line frequency
E4D11 @E4C11 (B)
What type of equipment cannot be used to locate power line noise?
A. An AM receiver with a directional antenna
B. An FM receiver with a directional antenna
C. A hand-held RF sniffer
D. An ultrasonic transducer, amplifier and parabolic reflector
E4E Component mounting techniques (i.e., surface, dead bug {raised},
circuit board); direction finding: techniques and equipment; fox
hunting
E4E01 @A4A11 (D)
What circuit construction technique uses leadless components mounted
between circuit board pads?
A. Raised mounting
B. Integrated circuit mounting
C. Hybrid device mounting
D. Surface mounting
E4E02 @E4D01 (A)
What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction
finding?
A. It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop
B. It is non-rotatable
C. It receives equally well in all directions
D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands
E4E03 @E4D02 (B)
What pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna?
A. One which is non-cardioid
B. One with good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios
C. One with good top-to-bottom and side-to-side ratios
D. One with shallow nulls
E4E04 @E4D03 (C)
What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
A. The geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves from the signal
source are used to locate the source
B. A fixed receiving station plots three beam headings from the
signal source on a map
C. Beam headings from several receiving stations are used to plot the
signal source on a map
D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot
the location of the signal source
E4E05 @E4D04 (D)
Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction
finding?
A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal
B. It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation
C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern
nulls
D. It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals
E4E06 @E4D05 (A)
What is a sense antenna?
A. A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid
reception pattern
B. A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid
reception pattern
C. A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a
omnidirectional reception pattern
D. A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a
omnidirectional reception pattern
E4E07 @E4D06 (D)
What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception in radio
direction finding?
A. A log-periodic dipole array
B. An isotropic antenna
C. A circularly-polarized antenna
D. An Adcock antenna
E4E08 @E4D07 (C)
What is a loop antenna?
A. A large circularly-polarized antenna
B. A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
C. Several turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
D. Any antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of
wire
E4E09 @E4D08 (D)
How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased?
A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing
the area of the loop structure
C. By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the
area of the loop structure
D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the
area of the loop structure
E4E10 EE4D09 (B)
Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable for a
direction-finding system?
A. The broad-side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at
the desired station
B. The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction
of the desired station
C. The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the
direction of the desired station
D. The high-radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for
short-distance direction finding
E4E11 @E4D10 (C)
What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding?
A. Homogeneous terrain
B. Smooth grassy terrain
C. Varied terrain
D. Terrain with no buildings or mountains
E4E12 @E4D11 (A)
What is the activity known as fox hunting?
A. Amateurs using receivers and direction-finding techniques attempt
to locate a hidden transmitter
B. Amateurs using transmitting equipment and direction-finding
techniques attempt to locate a hidden receiver
C. Amateurs helping the government track radio-transmitter collars
attached to animals
D. Amateurs assemble stations using generators and portable antennas
to test their emergency communications skills
SUBELEMENT E5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [9 Exam Questions -- 9 Groups]
E5A Characteristics of resonant circuits: Series resonance (capacitor
and inductor to resonate at a specific frequency); Parallel resonance
(capacitor and inductor to resonate at a specific frequency); half-
power bandwidth
E5A01 @A5A01 (A)
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger
than the voltage applied to them?
A. Resonance
B. Capacitance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
E5A02 @A5A02 (C)
What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
A. The highest frequency that will pass current
B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
C. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive
reactance
D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum
E5A03 @A5A03 (B)
What are the conditions for resonance to occur in an electrical
circuit?
A. The power factor is at a minimum
B. Inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
C. The square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive
reactance is equal to the resonant frequency
D. The square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive
reactance is equal to the resonant frequency
E5A04 @A5A04 (D)
When the inductive reactance of an electrical circuit equals its
capacitive reactance, what is this condition called?
A. Reactive quiescence
B. High Q
C. Reactive equilibrium
D. Resonance
E5A05 @A5A05 (D)
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at
resonance?
A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
E5A06 @A5A06 (A)
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor,
an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
E5A07 @A5A07 (B)
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-C
circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It is DC
D. It is zero
E5A08 #A5A08 (B)
What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components
of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It is DC
D. It is zero
E5A09 @A5A09 (A)
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-C
circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It is DC
D. It is zero
E5A10 @A5A10 (C)
What is the relationship between the current through a resonant
circuit and the voltage across the circuit?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
E5A11 @A5A11 (C)
What is the relationship between the current into (or out of) a
parallel resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
E5A12 @A5E01 (A)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 18.9 kHz
B. 1.89 kHz
C. 189 Hz
D. 58.7 kHz
E5A13 @A5E03 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
A. 211 kHz
B. 16.5 kHz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 21.1 kHz
E5A14 @A5E05 (A)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150?
A. 95 kHz
B. 10.5 kHz
C. 10.5 MHz
D. 17 kHz
E5A15 @A5E06 (D)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 4.49 kHz
B. 44.9 kHz
C. 22.3 kHz
D. 222.6 kHz
E5A16 @A5E09 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
A. 22.3 kHz
B. 76.2 kHz
C. 31.4 kHz
D. 10.8 kHz
E5A17 @A5E10 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
A. 22.3 kHz
B. 10.8 kHz
C. 76.2 kHz
D. 13.1 kHz
E5B Exponential charge/discharge curves (time constants): definition;
time constants in RL and RC circuits;
E5B01 @E5B01 (B)
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC
circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?
A. An exponential rate of one
B. One time constant
C. One exponential period
D. A time factor of one
E5B02 @E5B02 (A)
What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL
circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?
A. One time constant
B. An exponential period of one
C. A time factor of one
D. One exponential rate
E5B03 @E5B03 (D)
What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an
RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored
charge?
A. One discharge period
B. An exponential discharge rate of one
C. A discharge factor of one
D. One time constant
E5B04 @E5B04 (C)
The capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the
supply voltage after two time constants?
A. 36.8%
B. 63.2%
C. 86.5%
D. 95%
E5B05 @E5B05 (D)
The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the
starting voltage after two time constants?
A. 86.5%
B. 63.2%
C. 36.8%
D. 13.5%
E5B06 @E5B06 (A)
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad
capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?
A. 47 seconds
B. 101.1 seconds
C. 103 seconds
D. 220 seconds
E5B07 @E5B07 (D)
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad
capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?
A. 47 seconds
B. 101.1 seconds
C. 103 seconds
D. 220 seconds
E5B08 @E5B08 (C)
What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad
capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
A. 47 seconds
B. 80 seconds
C. 103 seconds
D. 220 seconds
E5B09 @E5B09 (A)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to
7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
A. 0.02 seconds
B. 0.08 seconds
C. 450 seconds
D. 1350 seconds
E5B10 @E5B10 (B)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to
0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
A. 0.02 seconds
B. 0.08 seconds
C. 450 seconds
D. 1350 seconds
E5B11 @E5B11 (C)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to
294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
A. 0.02 seconds
B. 0.08 seconds
C. 450 seconds
D. 1350 seconds
E5C Impedance diagrams: Basic principles of Smith charts; impedance
of RLC networks at specified frequencies
E5C01 @E5C01 (A)
What type of graph can be used to calculate impedance along
transmission lines?
A. A Smith chart
B. A logarithmic chart
C. A Jones chart
D. A radiation pattern chart
E5C02 @E5C02 (B)
What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
A. Voltage and current circles
B. Resistance and reactance circles
C. Voltage and current lines
D. Resistance and reactance lines
E5C03 @E5C03 (C)
What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith chart?
A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
D. Circuit gain calculations
E5C04 @E5C04 (C)
What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith chart?
A. Resistance and voltage
B. Reactance and voltage
C. Resistance and reactance
D. Voltage and impedance
E5C05 @E5C05 (A)
What type of chart is shown in Figure E5-1?
A. Smith chart
B. Free-space radiation directivity chart
C. Vertical-space radiation pattern chart
D. Horizontal-space radiation pattern chart
E5C06 @E5C06 (B)
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the name for the
large outer circle bounding the coordinate portion of the chart?
A. Prime axis
B. Reactance axis
C. Impedance axis
D. Polar axis
E5C07 @E5C07 (D)
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the only straight
line shown?
A. The reactance axis
B. The current axis
C. The voltage axis
D. The resistance axis
E5C08 @E5C08 (C)
What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith chart?
A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
C. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center
D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
E5C09 @E5C10 (A)
What is the third family of circles, which are added to a Smith chart
during the process of solving problems?
A. Standing-wave ratio circles
B. Antenna-length circles
C. Coaxial-length circles
D. Radiation-pattern circles
E5C10 @E5D03 (A)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor
at 500 MHz?
A. 40 + j31,400
B. 40 - j31,400
C. 31,400 + j40
D. 31,400 - j40
E5C11 @E5D04 (C)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4,000-ohm resistor at 500
kHz?
A. 2490 ohms, /__51.5_degrees__
B. 4000 ohms, /__38.5_degrees__
C. 2490 ohms, /__-51.5_degrees__
D. 5112 ohms, /__-38.5_degrees__
E5C12 @E5D11 (D)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series
circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor
and a 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 5
D. Point 8
E5D Phase angle between voltage and current; impedances and phase
angles of series and parallel circuits; algebraic operations using
complex numbers: rectangular coordinates (real and imaginary parts);
polar coordinates (magnitude and angle)
E5D01 @A5G01 (A)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 100 ohms?
A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5D02 @A5G03 (C)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and
XL is 250 ohms?
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5D03 @A5G05 (D)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 25 ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5D04 @A5G07 (A)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
XL is 75 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5D05 @A5G09 (D)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 75 ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5D06 @A5G10 (D)
What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage
across a capacitor?
A. Voltage and current are in phase
B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
E5D07 @A5G11 (A)
What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and
the voltage across an inductor?
A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D. Voltage and current are in phase
E5D08 @E5E01 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 121 ohms, /__35_degrees__
B. 141 ohms, /__45_degrees__
C. 161 ohms, /__55_degrees__
D. 181 ohms, /__65_degrees__
E5D09 @E5E02 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a
100-ohm resistor all connected in series?
A. 100 ohms, /__90_degrees__
B. 10 ohms, /__0_degrees__
C. 10 ohms, /__100_degrees__
D. 100 ohms, /__0_degrees__
E5D10 @E5E04 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a
400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
A. 500 ohms, /__37_degrees__
B. 400 ohms, /__27_degrees__
C. 300 ohms, /__17_degrees__
D. 200 ohms, /__10_degrees__
E5D11 @E5E06 (B)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm
resistor at 30 kHz?
A. 200 - j188
B. 200 + j188
C. 188 - j200
D. 188 + j200
E5D12 @E5E07 (C)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 10-millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm
resistor at 10 kHz?
A. 628 + j600
B. 628 - j600
C. 600 + j628
D. 600 - j628
E5D13 @E5E08 (B)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 0.1-microfarad capacitor in series with a 40-ohm
resistor at 50 kHz?
A. 40 + j32
B. 40 - j32
C. 32 - j40
D. 32 + j40
E5E Skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields
E5E01 @A5D01 (A)
What is the result of skin effect?
A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, closer to the surface
B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, closer to the surface
C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the
impedance
D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the
impedance
E5E02 @A5D02 (C)
What effect causes most of an RF current to flow along the surface of
a conductor?
A. Layer effect
B. Seeburg effect
C. Skin effect
D. Resonance effect
E5E03 @A5D03 (A)
Where does almost all RF current flow in a conductor?
A. Along the surface of the conductor
B. In the center of the conductor
C. In a magnetic field around the conductor
D. In a magnetic field in the center of the conductor
E5E04 @A5D04 (D)
Why does most of an RF current flow within a few thousandths of an
inch of its conductor's surface?
A. Because a conductor has AC resistance due to self-inductance
B. Because the RF resistance of a conductor is much less than the DC
resistance
C. Because of the heating of the conductor's interior
D. Because of skin effect
E5E05 @A5D05 (C)
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than
for direct currents?
A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
C. Because of skin effect
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices
E5E06 @A5D06 (C)
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic
field?
A. A battery
B. A transformer
C. A capacitor
D. An inductor
E5E07 @A5D07 (B)
What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
A. Coulomb
B. Joule
C. Watt
D. Volt
E5E08 @A5D08 (B)
What is a magnetic field?
A. Current through the space around a permanent magnet
B. The space around a conductor, through which a magnetic force acts
C. The space between the plates of a charged capacitor, through which
a magnetic force acts
D. The force that drives current through a resistor
E5E09 @A5D09 (D)
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in
relation to the direction of electron flow?
A. In the same direction as the current
B. In a direction opposite to the current
C. In all directions; omnidirectional
D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
E5E10 @A5D10 (D)
What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
A. The resistance divided by the current
B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
C. The diameter of the conductor
D. The amount of current
E5E11 @A5D11 (B)
What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or
electrostatic field?
A. Amperes-joules
B. Potential energy
C. Joules-coulombs
D. Kinetic energy
E5F Circuit Q; reactive power; power factor
E5F01 @A5F01 (A)
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
14.128 MHz, L is 2.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms?
A. 75.1
B. 7.51
C. 71.5
D. 0.013
E5F02 @A5F03 (C)
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
4.468 MHz, L is 47 microhenrys and R is 180 ohms?
A. 0.00735
B. 7.35
C. 0.136
D. 13.3
E5F03 @A5F05 (D)
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
7.125 MHz, L is 8.2 microhenrys and R is 1 kilohm?
A. 36.8
B. 0.273
C. 0.368
D. 2.73
E5F04 @A5F07 (B)
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
7.125 MHz, L is 12.6 microhenrys and R is 22 kilohms?
A. 22.1
B. 39
C. 25.6
D. 0.0256
E5F05 @A5F09 (D)
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
3.625 MHz, L is 42 microhenrys and R is 220 ohms?
A. 23
B. 0.00435
C. 4.35
D. 0.23
E5F06 @A5F11 (C)
Why is a resistor often included in a parallel resonant circuit?
A. To increase the Q and decrease the skin effect
B. To decrease the Q and increase the resonant frequency
C. To decrease the Q and increase the bandwidth
D. To increase the Q and decrease the bandwidth
E5F07 @A5H02 (D)
What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated
with inductors and capacitors?
A. Effective power
B. True power
C. Peak envelope power
D. Reactive power
E5F08 @A5H03 (B)
In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors, what happens to
reactive power?
A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
B. It goes back and forth between magnetic and electric fields, but
is not dissipated
C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive
fields
E5F09 @A5H04 (A)
In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how
can the true power be determined?
A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor
C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current
E5F10 @A5H05 (C)
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase
angle between the voltage and the current?
A. 1.414
B. 0.866
C. 0.5
D. 1.73
E5F11 @A5H08 (B)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2
if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
A. 400 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 2000 watts
D. 50 watts
E5F12 @A5H11 (A)
Why would the power used in a circuit be less than the product of the
magnitudes of the AC voltage and current?
A. Because there is a phase angle greater than zero between the
current and voltage
B. Because there are only resistances in the circuit
C. Because there are no reactances in the circuit
D. Because there is a phase angle equal to zero between the current
and voltage
E5G Effective radiated power; system gains and losses
E5G01 @A5I01 (B)
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50
watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 2-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
A. 199 watts
B. 39.7 watts
C. 45 watts
D. 62.9 watts
E5G02 @A5I02 (C)
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50
watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
A. 79.2 watts
B. 315 watts
C. 31.5 watts
D. 40.5 watts
E5G03 @A5I03 (D)
What is the effective radiated power of a station with 75 watts
transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
A. 600 watts
B. 75 watts
C. 150 watts
D. 299 watts
E5G04 @A5I04 (A)
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 75
watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
A. 37.6 watts
B. 237 watts
C. 150 watts
D. 23.7 watts
E5G05 @A5I05 (D)
What is the effective radiated power of a station with 100 watts
transmitter power output, 1-dB feed line loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
A. 350 watts
B. 500 watts
C. 20 watts
D. 316 watts
E5G06 @A5I06 (B)
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 100
watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
A. 794 watts
B. 126 watts
C. 79.4 watts
D. 1260 watts
E5G07 @A5I07 (C)
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 120
watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
A. 601 watts
B. 240 watts
C. 60 watts
D. 79 watts
E5G08 @A5I08 (D)
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150
watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer
loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
A. 1977 watts
B. 78.7 watts
C. 420 watts
D. 286 watts
E5G09 @A5I09 (A)
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200
watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer
loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
A. 317 watts
B. 2000 watts
C. 126 watts
D. 300 watts
E5G10 @A5I10 (B)
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200
watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer
loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
A. 159 watts
B. 252 watts
C. 632 watts
D. 63.2 watts
E5G11 @A5I11 (C)
What term describes station output (including the transmitter, antenna
and everything in between), when considering transmitter power and
system gains and losses?
A. Power factor
B. Half-power bandwidth
C. Effective radiated power
D. Apparent power
E5H Replacement of voltage source and resistive voltage divider with
equivalent voltage source and one resistor (Thevenin's Theorem).
E5H01 @A5J01 (B)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8
kilohms?
A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
B. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
C. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
D. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
E5H02 @A5J02 (C)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8
kilohms?
A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
B. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts
D. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
E5H03 @A5J03 (A)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16
kilohms?
A. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
B. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
C. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
D. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
E5H04 @A5J04 (D)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?
A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
B. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
C. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
D. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
E5H05 @A5J05 (C)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?
A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
E5H06 @A5J06 (A)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?
A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
E5H07 @A5J07 (B)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?
A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
B. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
C. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
E5H08 @A5J08 (B)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?
A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
D. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
E5H09 @A5J09 (C)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?
A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
B. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
E5H10 @A5J10 (A)
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?
A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
B. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
C. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
D. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
E5H11 @A5J11 (D)
What circuit principle describes the replacement of any complex two-
terminal network of voltage sources and resistances with a single
voltage source and a single resistor?
A. Ohm's Law
B. Kirchhoff's Law
C. Laplace's Theorem
D. Thevenin's Theorem
E5I Photoconductive principles and effects
E5I01 @E5A01 (B)
What is photoconductivity?
A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
E5I02 @E5A02 (A)
What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when
light shines on it?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. It becomes temperature dependent
E5I03 @E5A03 (D)
What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when
light shines on it?
A. It increases
B. It becomes temperature dependent
C. It stays the same
D. It decreases
E5I04 @E5A04 (C)
What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when
light shines on it?
A. It stays the same
B. It becomes temperature dependent
C. It increases
D. It decreases
E5I05 @E5A05 (D)
What is an optocoupler?
A. A resistor and a capacitor
B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
D. An LED and a phototransistor
E5I06 @E5A06 (A)
What is an optoisolator?
A. An LED and a phototransistor
B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed
to light
C. An LED and a capacitor
D. An LED and a solar cell
E5I07 @E5A07 (B)
What is an optical shaft encoder?
A. An array of neon or LED indicators whose light transmission path is
controlled by a rotating wheel
B. An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is
controlled by a rotating wheel
C. An array of neon or LED indicators mounted on a rotating wheel in a
coded pattern
D. An array of optocouplers mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded
pattern
E5I08 @E5A08 (D)
What characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity
change?
A. The capacitance
B. The inductance
C. The specific gravity
D. The resistance
E5I09 @E5A09 (C)
Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when
visible light shines on it?
A. Potassium nitrate
B. Lead sulfide
C. Cadmium sulfide
D. Sodium chloride
E5I10 @E5A10 (B)
Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when
infrared light shines on it?
A. Potassium nitrate
B. Lead sulfide
C. Cadmium sulfide
D. Sodium chloride
E5I11 @E5A11 (A)
Which material is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A. A crystalline semiconductor
B. An ordinary metal
C. A heavy metal
D. A liquid semiconductor
E5I12 @New (B)
What characteristic of optoisolators is often used in power supplies?
A. They have a low impedance between the light source and the
phototransistor
B. They have a very high impedance between the light source and the
phototransistor
C. They have a low impedance between the light source and the LED
D. They have a very high impedance between the light source and the
LED
E5I13 @New (C)
What characteristic of optoisolators makes them suitable for use with
a triac to form the solid-state equivalent of a mechanical relay for a
120 V AC household circuit?
A. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control
circuit and a power circuit
B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control
circuit and power circuit
C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation
between a control circuit and a power circuit
D. Optoisolators eliminate (isolate) the effects of reflected light in
the control circuit
SUBELEMENT E6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]
E6A Semiconductor material: Germanium, Silicon, P-type, N-type;
Transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, unijunction, power; field-effect
transistors (FETs): enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-
channel; P-channel
E6A01 @A6A02 (C)
In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor
material in preference to germanium or silicon?
A. In bipolar transistors
B. In high-power circuits
C. At microwave frequencies
D. At very low frequencies
E6A02 @A6A05 (A)
What type of semiconductor material contains more free electrons than
pure germanium or silicon crystals?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. Bipolar
D. Insulated gate
E6A03 @A6A07 (D)
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some
indium atoms to germanium crystals?
A. J-type
B. MOS-type
C. N-type
D. P-type
E6A04 @A6A09 (C)
What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor
material?
A. Free neutrons
B. Free protons
C. Holes
D. Free electrons
E6A05 @A6A12 (C)
What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a
semiconductor crystal structure?
A. Insulator impurity
B. N-type impurity
C. Acceptor impurity
D. Donor impurity
E6A06 @A6D02 (C)
What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor?
A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
B. The change of base current with respect to collector current
C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current
E6A07 @A6D06 (A)
In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
E6A08 @A6D07 (D)
What term indicates the frequency at which a transistor grounded base
current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
A. Corner frequency
B. Alpha rejection frequency
C. Beta cutoff frequency
D. Alpha cutoff frequency
E6A09 @A6D12 (D)
In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a unijunction
transistor?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E6A10 @A6D13 (C)
What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?
A. Gate, base 1 and base 2
B. Gate, cathode and anode
C. Base 1, base 2 and emitter
D. Gate, source and sink
E6A11 @E6A01 (D)
What is an enhancement-mode FET?
A. An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate
B. An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate voltage
is zero
C. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
D. An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage
E6A12 @E6A02 (A)
What is a depletion-mode FET?
A. An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current
flows with zero gate voltage
B. An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate
voltage is zero
C. An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage
D. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
E6A13 @E6A05 (B)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-
gate MOSFET?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E6A14 @E6A09 (A)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction
FET?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E6A15 @E6A10 (D)
Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes?
A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-
bias gate voltage
B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the
device from overheating
D. To prevent the gate insulation from being punctured by small
static charges or excessive voltages
E6A16 @E6A11 (C)
What do the initials CMOS stand for?
A. Common mode oscillating system
B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate
E6A17 @E6A12 (C)
How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with
that of a bipolar transistor?
A. They cannot be compared without first knowing the supply voltage
B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high
input impedance
C. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low
input impedance
D. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same
E6B Diodes: Zener, tunnel, varactor, hot-carrier, junction, point
contact, PIN and light emitting; operational amplifiers (inverting
amplifiers, noninverting amplifiers, voltage gain, frequency
response, FET amplifier circuits, single-stage amplifier
applications); phase-locked loops
E6B01 @A6B01 (B)
What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?
A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
B. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
C. A negative resistance region
D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
E6B02 @A6B03 (C)
What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
A. A high forward resistance
B. A very high PIV
C. A negative resistance region
D. A high forward current rating
E6B03 @A6B04 (C)
What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and
oscillation?
A. Point contact
B. Zener
C. Tunnel
D. Junction
E6B04 @A6B06 (A)
What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as
the voltage applied to its terminals varies?
A. Varactor
B. Tunnel
C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
D. Zener
E6B05 @A6B07 (D)
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 1
E6B06 @A6B08 (D)
What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control
circuit
C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
D. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors
E6B07 @A6B09 (B)
What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?
A. Peak inverse voltage
B. Junction temperature
C. Forward voltage
D. Back EMF
E6B08 @A6B11 (A)
Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor
diodes?
A. Junction and point contact
B. Electrolytic and junction
C. Electrolytic and point contact
D. Vacuum and point contact
E6B09 @A6B12 (C)
What is a common use for point contact diodes?
A. As a constant current source
B. As a constant voltage source
C. As an RF detector
D. As a high voltage rectifier
E6B10 @A6B15 (B)
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting
diode?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E6B11 @E7D01 (A)
What is the phase relationship between the input and output signals of
an inverting op-amp circuit?
A. 180 degrees out of phase
B. In phase
C. 90 degrees out of phase
D. 60 degrees out of phase
E6B12 @E7D06 (C)
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when
R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
A. 0.00021
B. 9400
C. 4700
D. 2350
E6B13 @E7D07 (D)
How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary
with frequency?
A. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
B. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
D. It does not vary with frequency
E6B14 @E7D09 (A)
What essentially determines the output impedance of a FET common-
source amplifier?
A. The drain resistor
B. The input impedance of the FET
C. The drain supply voltage
D. The gate supply voltage
E6B15 @E7D11 (D)
What will be the voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-1 if R1 is
1000 ohms and RF is 10,000 ohms and 2.3 volts is applied to the input?
A. 2.3 volts
B. 23 volts
C. -2.3 volts
D. -23 volts
E6B16 @E6B10 (B)
What is the name of a circuit that compares the difference of the
output from a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency
standard and produces an error voltage that changes the VCO's
frequency?
A. A doubly balanced mixer
B. A phase-locked loop
C. A differential voltage amplifier
D. A variable frequency oscillator
E6B17 @E6B11 (A)
What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
A. The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
B. The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
C. The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
D. The range of time it takes the circuit to lock
E6C TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated
circuits; gates
E6C01 @E6C01 (C)
What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated
circuits?
A. 12 volts
B. 1.5 volts
C. 5 volts
D. 13.6 volts
E6C02 @E6C02 (A)
What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left
open?
A. A high-logic state
B. A low-logic state
C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high
or low-logic states
D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6C03 @E6C03 (A)
What level of input voltage is high in a TTL device operating with a
5-volt power supply?
A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
B. 1.5 to 3.0 volts
C. 1.0 to 1.5 volts
D. -5.0 to -2.0 volts
E6C04 @E6C04 (C)
What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with a 5-
volt power-supply?
A. -2.0 to -5.5 volts
B. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
C. 0.0 to 0.8 volts
D. -0.8 to 0.4 volts
E6C05 @E6C05 (B)
What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices?
A. Small size
B. Low power consumption
C. Low cost
D. Ease of circuit design
E6C06 @E6C06 (C)
Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on
the input signal or power supply?
A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply
voltage
C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply
voltage
D. Input signals are stronger
E6C07 @E6C07 (A)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E6C08 @E6C08 (B)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E6C09 @E6C09 (B)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E6C10 @E6C10 (D)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E6C11 @E6C11 (C)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NOT gate?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E6D Vidicon and cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled devices
(CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs); toroids: permeability, core
material, selecting, winding
E6D01 @E6D02 (D)
How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon?
A. By varying the beam voltage
B. By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids inside the
tube
C. By varying the beam current
D. By varying electromagnetic fields
E6D02 @E6D04 (D)
What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
A. The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam
is turned on
B. The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of
ambient light
C. The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying
conditions
D. The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam
is turned off
E6D03 @E6D05 (A)
If a cathode ray tube (CRT) is designed to operate with an anode
voltage of 25,000 volts, what will happen if the anode voltage is
increased to 35,000 volts?
A. The image size will decrease and the tube will produce X-rays
B. The image size will increase and the tube will produce X-rays
C. The image will become larger and brighter
D. There will be no apparent change
E6D04 @E6D06 (B)
Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to
generate X-rays?
A. The heater voltage
B. The anode voltage
C. The operating temperature
D. The operating frequency
E6D05 @E6D08 (C)
Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
A. Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
B. It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
C. It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input
to the output
D. It is used in a battery charger circuit
E6D06 @E6D09 (A)
What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern
video camera?
A. It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to
pixels
B. It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam
scanning
C. It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical
charges corresponding to the image
D. It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF
signal
E6D07 @E6D10 (B)
What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which
displays its fundamental frequency
B. A display that uses a crystalline liquid to change the way light
is refracted
C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim
light
E6D08 @A6C01 (D)
What material property determines the inductance of a toroidal
inductor with a 10-turn winding?
A. Core load current
B. Core resistance
C. Core reactivity
D. Core permeability
E6D09 @A6C02 (B)
By careful selection of core material, over what frequency range can
toroidal cores produce useful inductors?
A. From a few kHz to no more than several MHz
B. From DC to at least 1000 MHz
C. From DC to no more than 3000 kHz
D. From a few hundred MHz to at least 1000 GHz
E6D10 @A6C03 (A)
What materials are used to make ferromagnetic inductors and
transformers?
A. Ferrite and powdered-iron toroids
B. Silicon-ferrite toroids and shellac
C. Powdered-ferrite and silicon toroids
D. Ferrite and silicon-epoxy toroids
E6D11 @A6C04 (B)
What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather
than ferrite toroids in an inductor?
A. Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial
permeabilities
B. Powdered-iron toroids generally have better temperature stability
C. Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a
given inductance value
D. Powdered-iron toroids are easier to use with surface-mount
technology
E6D12 @A6C06 (B)
What would be a good choice of toroid core material to make a common-
mode choke (such as winding telephone wires or stereo speaker leads on
a core) to cure an HF RFI problem?
A. Type 61 mix ferrite (initial permeability of 125)
B. Type 43 mix ferrite (initial permeability of 850)
C. Type 6 mix powdered iron (initial permeability of 8)
D. Type 12 mix powdered iron (initial permeability of 3)
E6D13 @A6C07 (C)
What devices are commonly used as parasitic suppressors at the input
and output terminals of VHF and UHF amplifiers?
A. Electrolytic capacitors
B. Butterworth filters
C. Ferrite beads
D. Steel-core toroids
E6D14 @A6C08 (A)
What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a
linear core in an inductor?
A. Toroidal cores contain most of the magnetic field within the core
material
B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into
other components
C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6D15 @A6C10 (C)
How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a
ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A sub L) value of
523?
A. 2 turns
B. 4 turns
C. 43 turns
D. 229 turns
E6D16 @A6C11 (A)
How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor
using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A
sub L) value of 40?
A. 35 turns
B. 13 turns
C. 79 turns
D. 141 turns
E6E Quartz crystal (frequency determining properties as used in
oscillators and filters); monolithic amplifiers (MMICs)
E6E01 @A6F01 (B)
For single-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a
good crystal lattice band-pass filter?
A. 6 kHz at -6 dB
B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB
C. 500 Hz at -6 dB
D. 15 kHz at -6 dB
E6E02 @A6F02 (C)
For double-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a
good crystal lattice band-pass filter?
A. 1 kHz at -6 dB
B. 500 Hz at -6 dB
C. 6 kHz at -6 dB
D. 15 kHz at -6 dB
E6E03 @A6F03 (D)
What is a crystal lattice filter?
A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
B. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-
kHz intervals
C. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz
crystals
D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz
crystals
E6E04 @A6F04 (D)
What technique is used to construct low-cost, high-performance crystal
filters?
A. Choose a center frequency that matches the available crystals
B. Choose a crystal with the desired bandwidth and operating
frequency to match a desired center frequency
C. Measure crystal bandwidth to ensure at least 20% coupling
D. Measure crystal frequencies and carefully select units with less
than 10% frequency difference
E6E05 @A6F05 (A)
Which factor helps determine the bandwidth and response shape of a
crystal filter?
A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
B. The center frequency chosen for the filter
C. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
E6E06 @A6F06 (A)
What is the piezoelectric effect?
A. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a
magnetic field
C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
E6E07 @A6F07 (C)
Which of the following devices would be most suitable for constructing
a receive preamplifier for 1296 MHz?
A. A 2N2222 bipolar transistor
B. An MRF901 bipolar transistor
C. An MSA-0135 monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)
D. An MPF102 N-junction field-effect transistor (JFET)
E6E08 @A6F08 (A)
Which device might be used to simplify the design and construction of
a 3456-MHz receiver?
A. An MSA-0735 monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC).
B. An MRF901 bipolar transistor
C. An MGF1402 gallium arsenide field-effect transistor (GaAsFET)
D. An MPF102 N-junction field-effect transistor (JFET)
E6E09 @A6F09 (D)
What type of amplifier device consists of a small "pill sized" package
with an input lead, an output lead and 2 ground leads?
A. A gallium arsenide field-effect transistor (GaAsFET)
B. An operational amplifier integrated circuit (OAIC)
C. An indium arsenide integrated circuit (IAIC)
D. A monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)
E6E10 @A6F10 (B)
What typical construction technique do amateurs use when building an
amplifier containing a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
A. Ground-plane "ugly" construction
B. Microstrip construction
C. Point-to-point construction
D. Wave-soldering construction
E6E11 @A6F11 (A)
How is the operating bias voltage supplied to a monolithic microwave
integrated circuit (MMIC)?
A. Through a resistor and RF choke connected to the amplifier output
lead
B. MMICs require no operating bias
C. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input
lead
D. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
SUBELEMENT E7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [7 Exam Questions -- 7 Groups]
E7A Digital logic circuits: Flip flops; Astable and monostable
multivibrators; Gates (AND, NAND, OR, NOR); Positive and negative
logic
E7A01 @E7A01 (C)
What is a bistable multivibrator circuit?
A. An "AND" gate
B. An "OR" gate
C. A flip-flop
D. A clock
E7A02 @E7A02 (C)
How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger
pulses applied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Four
E7A03 @E7A03 (B)
The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what
type of digital circuit?
A. A free-running multivibrator
B. A bistable multivibrator
C. An OR gate
D. An astable multivibrator
E7A04 @E7A04 (B)
How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E7A05 @E7A05 (D)
What is the characteristic function of an astable multivibrator?
A. It alternates between two stable states
B. It alternates between a stable state and an unstable state
C. It blocks either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and passes the other
D. It alternates between two unstable states
E7A06 @E7A06 (A)
What is the characteristic function of a monostable multivibrator?
A. It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then
returns after a set time to its original state
B. It is a "clock" that produces a continuous square wave oscillating
between 1 and 0
C. It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
D. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations
in the input voltage
E7A07 @E7A07 (B)
What logical operation does an AND gate perform?
A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"1"
B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"1"
C. It produces a logic "1" at its output if only one input is a logic
"1"
D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7A08 @E7A08 (D)
What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are
logic "0"
B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are
logic "1"
C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its
inputs are logic "1"
D. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are
logic "1"
E7A09 @E7A09 (A)
What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
A. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any input is or all inputs
are logic "1"
B. It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
C. It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are
logic "1"
D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7A10 @E7A10 (C)
What logical operation does a NOR gate perform?
A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"0"
B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"1"
C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is or all
inputs are logic "1"
D. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when none of its inputs
are logic "0"
E7A11 @E7A11 (C)
What is a truth table?
A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an
op-amp
B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is
true
C. A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that
characterize the function of a digital device
D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an
op-amp
E7A12 @E7A12 (D)
In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic
1?
A. A low level
B. A positive-transition level
C. A negative-transition level
D. A high level
E7A13 @E7A13 (A)
In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic
1?
A. A low level
B. A positive-transition level
C. A negative-transition level
D. A high level
E7B Amplifier circuits: Class A, Class AB, Class B, Class C, amplifier
operating efficiency (ie, DC input versus PEP), transmitter final
amplifiers; amplifier circuits: tube, bipolar transistor, FET
E7B01 @A7A03 (A)
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
B. Exactly 180 degrees
C. The entire cycle
D. Less than 180 degrees
E7B02 @A7A06 (C)
Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class AB
E7B03 @A7A07 (A)
Where on the load line should a solid-state power amplifier be
operated for best efficiency and stability?
A. Just below the saturation point
B. Just above the saturation point
C. At the saturation point
D. At 1.414 times the saturation point
E7B04 @A7A09 (C)
How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier?
A. By tuning for maximum SWR
B. By tuning for maximum power output
C. By neutralization
D. By tuning the output
E7B05 @A7A11 (B)
How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter
amplifiers?
A. By using a push-push amplifier
B. By using a push-pull amplifier
C. By operating Class C
D. By operating Class AB
E7B06 @A7A12 (D)
What can occur when a nonlinear amplifier is used with a single-
sideband phone transmitter?
A. Reduced amplifier efficiency
B. Increased intelligibility
C. Sideband inversion
D. Distortion
E7B07 @A7B01 (C)
How can a vacuum-tube power amplifier be neutralized?
A. By increasing the grid drive
B. By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input
C. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the
input
D. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the
output
E7B08 @A7B03 (B)
What tank-circuit Q is required to reduce harmonics to an acceptable
level?
A. Approximately 120
B. Approximately 12
C. Approximately 1200
D. Approximately 1.2
E7B09 @A7B05 (B)
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
A. Load resistors
B. Fixed bias
C. Self bias
D. Feedback
E7B10 @A7B07 (D)
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of C3?
A. AC feedback
B. Input coupling
C. Power supply decoupling
D. Emitter bypass
E7B11 @A7B08 (D)
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
A. Fixed bias
B. Emitter bypass
C. Output load resistor
D. Self bias
E7B12 @A7B10 (A)
In Figure A7-2, what is the purpose of R?
A. Emitter load
B. Fixed bias
C. Collector load
D. Voltage regulation
E7B13 @A7B12 (A)
In Figure A7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
A. Output coupling
B. Emitter bypass
C. Input coupling
D. Hum filtering
E7B14 @A7B14 (B)
What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. Line voltage stabilization
B. Voltage reference
C. Peak clipping
D. Hum filtering
E7B15 @A7B15 (C)
What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. It increases the output ripple
B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
C. It increases the current-handling capability
D. It provides D1 with current
E7B16 @A7B17 (A)
What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. It bypasses hum around D1
B. It is a brute force filter for the output
C. To self resonate at the hum frequency
D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
E7C Impedance-matching networks: Pi, L, Pi-L; filter circuits:
constant K, M-derived, band-stop, notch, crystal lattice, pi-section,
T-section, L-section, Butterworth, Chebyshev, elliptical; filter
applications (audio, IF, digital signal processing {DSP})
E7C01 @A7C03 (D)
How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter pi-network
arranged between the network's input and output?
A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output and a
capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an
inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
C. An inductor is in parallel with the input, another inductor is in
parallel with the output, and a capacitor is in series between the two
D. A capacitor is in parallel with the input, another capacitor is in
parallel with the output, and an inductor is in series between the two
E7C02 @A7C04 (B)
What is an L-network?
A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors
B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor
C. A network used to generate a leading phase angle
D. A network used to generate a lagging phase angle
E7C03 @A7C07 (C)
A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel (shunt) inductor has
which of the following properties?
A. It transforms impedances and is a low-pass filter
B. It transforms reactances and is a low-pass filter
C. It transforms impedances and is a high-pass filter
D. It transforms reactances and is a high-pass filter
E7C04 @A7C08 (A)
What advantage does a pi-L-network have over a pi-network for
impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type
transmitter and a multiband antenna?
A. Greater harmonic suppression
B. Higher efficiency
C. Lower losses
D. Greater transformation range
E7C05 @A7C11 (C)
How does a network transform one impedance to another?
A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of
an impedance
B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of an
impedance
C. It cancels the reactive part of an impedance and changes the
resistive part
D. Network resistances substitute for load resistances
E7C06 @A7D02 (B)
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 20-microhenry
inductor to resonate in the 80-meter band?
A. 150 picofarads
B. 100 picofarads
C. 200 picofarads
D. 100 microfarads
E7C07 @A7D09 (D)
Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a
sharp cutoff?
A. A Butterworth filter
B. An active LC filter
C. A passive op-amp filter
D. A Chebyshev filter
E7C08 @A7D10 (C)
What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
B. Extremely flat response over its passband, with gradually rounded
stop-band corners
C. Extremely sharp cutoff, with one or more infinitely deep notches
in the stop band
D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple
E7C09 @A7H07 (B)
What kind of audio filter would you use to attenuate an interfering
carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A notch filter
C. A pi-network filter
D. An all-pass filter
E7C10 @A7H08 (D)
What characteristic do typical SSB receiver IF filters lack that is
important to digital communications?
A. Steep amplitude-response skirts
B. Passband ripple
C. High input impedance
D. Linear phase response
E7C11 @A7H09 (A)
What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to
remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
A. An adaptive filter
B. A notch filter
C. A Hilbert-transform filter
D. A phase-inverting filter
E7C12 @A7H10 (C)
What kind of digital signal processing filter might be used in
generating an SSB signal?
A. An adaptive filter
B. A notch filter
C. A Hilbert-transform filter
D. An elliptical filter
E7C13 @A7H11 (B)
Which type of filter would be the best to use in a 2-meter repeater
duplexer?
A. A crystal filter
B. A cavity filter
C. A DSP filter
D. An L-C filter
E7D Oscillators: types, applications, stability; voltage-regulator
circuits: discrete, integrated and switched mode
E7D01 @A7F01 (D)
What are three major oscillator circuits often used in Amateur Radio
equipment?
A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
E7D02 @A7F02 (C)
What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
A. It must have a gain of less than 1
B. It must be neutralized
C. It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses
D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input
E7D03 @A7F03 (A)
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley
oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through a capacitive divider
C. Through link coupling
D. Through a neutralizing capacitor
E7D04 @A7F04 (C)
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts
oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a capacitive divider
D. Through a neutralizing capacitor
E7D05 @A7F05 (D)
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce
oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
D. Through capacitive coupling
E7D06 @A7F08 (B)
Which type of oscillator circuits are commonly used in a VFO?
A. Pierce and Zener
B. Colpitts and Hartley
C. Armstrong and deForest
D. Negative feedback and Balanced feedback
E7D07 @A7F11 (B)
Why must a very stable reference oscillator be used as part of a
phase-locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?
A. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will
prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
B. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will
produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
C. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will
produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
D. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will
prevent the loop from changing frequency
E7D08 @A7E01 (D)
What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
A. It has a ramp voltage as its output
B. The pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on"
state
C. The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle
proportional to the line or load conditions
D. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion
to the line voltage or load current
E7D09 @A7E02 (C)
What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage
regulator?
A. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion
to the line voltage or load current
B. It provides more than one output voltage
C. The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle
proportional to the line or load conditions
D. It gives a ramp voltage at its output
E7D10 @A7E03 (A)
What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a
linear voltage regulator?
A. A Zener diode
B. A tunnel diode
C. An SCR
D. A varactor diode
E7D11 @E7E04 (B)
What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring
efficient utilization of the primary power source?
A. A constant current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt regulator
D. A shunt current source
E7D12 @A7E05 (D)
What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications
requiring a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
A. A constant current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt current source
D. A shunt regulator
E7D13 @A7E06 (C)
To obtain the best temperature stability, approximately what operating
voltage should be used for the reference diode in a linear voltage
regulator?
A. 2 volts
B. 3 volts
C. 6 volts
D. 10 volts
E7D14 @A7E09 (B)
What are the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator?
A. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and
voltage
B. Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and
voltage
C. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and
maximum output voltage
D. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and
maximum output current
E7D15 @A7E10 (A)
What type of voltage regulator limits the voltage drop across its
junction when a specified current passes through it in the reverse-
breakdown direction?
A. A Zener diode
B. A three-terminal regulator
C. A bipolar regulator
D. A pass-transistor regulator
E7D16 @A7E11 (C)
What type of voltage regulator contains a voltage reference, error
amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element in
one package?
A. A switching regulator
B. A Zener regulator
C. A three-terminal regulator
D. An op-amp regulator
E7E Modulators: reactance, phase, balanced; detectors; mixer stages;
frequency synthesizers
E7E01 @A7G02 (B)
How is an F3E FM-phone emission produced?
A. With a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
B. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
C. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
D. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator
E7E02 @A7G03 (C)
How does a reactance modulator work?
A. It acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM
signals
B. It acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM
signals
C. It acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM
signals
D. It acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM
signals
E7E03 @A7G05 (C)
How does a phase modulator work?
A. It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce FM
signals
B. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM
signals
C. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce FM
signals
D. It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM
signals
E7E04 @A7G08 (A)
How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?
A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
E7E05 @A7G10 (D)
What audio shaping network is added at a transmitter to proportionally
attenuate the lower audio frequencies, giving an even spread to the
energy in the audio band?
A. A de-emphasis network
B. A heterodyne suppressor
C. An audio prescaler
D. A pre-emphasis network
E7E06 @A7G11 (A)
What audio shaping network is added at a receiver to restore
proportionally attenuated lower audio frequencies?
A. A de-emphasis network
B. A heterodyne suppressor
C. An audio prescaler
D. A pre-emphasis network
E7E07 @A7I01 (D)
What is the mixing process?
A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
comparison
B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
differentiation
C. The recovery of the intelligence from a modulated RF signal
D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference
frequencies
E7E08 @A7I02 (C)
What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a
mixer circuit?
A. Two and four times the original frequency
B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies
D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
E7E09 @A7I04 (A)
What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy
reaches the mixer circuit?
A. Spurious mixer products are generated
B. Mixer blanking occurs
C. Automatic limiting occurs
D. A beat frequency is generated
E7E10 @A7I05 (C)
What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a stable voltage-
controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector, loop
filter and a reference frequency source?
A. A direct digital synthesizer
B. A hybrid synthesizer
C. A phase-locked loop synthesizer
D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
E7E11 @A7I06 (A)
What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator,
lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass antialias
filter?
A. A direct digital synthesizer
B. A hybrid synthesizer
C. A phase-locked loop synthesizer
D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
E7E12 @A7I08 (D)
What are the main blocks of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
A. A variable-frequency crystal oscillator, phase accumulator,
digital to analog converter and a loop filter
B. A stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider,
phase detector, loop filter and a digital to analog converter
C. A variable-frequency oscillator, programmable divider, phase
detector and a low-pass antialias filter
D. A phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and
a low-pass antialias filter
E7E13 @A7I09 (B)
What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital
frequency synthesizer?
A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the
output waveform
B. The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and
the output waveform
D. The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in
the radio memories
E7E14 @A7I10 (C)
What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital
synthesizers?
A. Broadband noise
B. Digital conversion noise
C. Spurs at discrete frequencies
D. Nyquist limit noise
E7E15 @A7I11 (A)
What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop
synthesizers?
A. Broadband noise
B. Digital conversion noise
C. Spurs at discrete frequencies
D. Nyquist limit noise
E7F Digital frequency divider circuits; frequency marker generators;
frequency counters
E7F01 @E7B01 (D)
What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
A. It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-
flop
B. It multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display
the operating frequency
C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
D. It divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the
operating frequency
E7F02 @E7B02 (B)
How many states does a decade counter digital IC have?
A. 2
B. 10
C. 20
D. 100
E7F03 @E7B03 (A)
What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED
display
C. It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
D. It adds two decimal numbers
E7F04 @E7B04 (C)
What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled
marker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
A. An emitter-follower
B. Two frequency multipliers
C. Two flip-flops
D. A voltage divider
E7F05 @E7B05 (B)
If a 1-MHz oscillator is used with a divide-by-ten circuit to make a
marker generator, what will the output be?
A. A 1-MHz sinusoidal signal with harmonics every 100 kHz
B. A 100-kHz signal with harmonics every 100 kHz
C. A 1-MHz square wave with harmonics every 1 MHz
D. A 100-kHz signal modulated by a 10-kHz signal
E7F06 @E7B06 (D)
What is a crystal-controlled marker generator?
A. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a ban of
frequencies
B. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's
location relative to the inner and outer markers at airports
C. A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude
can be varied over a wide range
D. A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of reference
signals at known frequency intervals
E7F07 @E7B07 (A)
What type of circuit does NOT make a good marker generator?
A. A sinusoidal crystal oscillator
B. A crystal oscillator followed by a class C amplifier
C. A TTL device wired as a crystal oscillator
D. A crystal oscillator and a frequency divider
E7F08 @E7B08 (C)
What is the purpose of a marker generator?
A. To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
B. To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
C. To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
D. To add time signals to a transmitted signal
E7F09 @E7B09 (A)
What does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on?
A. The internal crystal reference
B. A voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying output
C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
D. Proper balancing of the power-supply diodes
E7F10 @E7B10 (C)
How does a frequency counter determine the frequency of a signal?
A. It counts the total number of pulses in a circuit
B. It monitors a WWV reference signal for comparison with the
measured signal
C. It counts the number of input pulses in a specific period of time
D. It converts the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is
proportional to the frequency
E7F11 @E7B11 (A)
What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
A. To indicate the frequency of the strongest input signal which is
within the counter's frequency range
B. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency
intervals
C. To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
D. To compare the difference between the input and a voltage-
controlled oscillator and produce an error voltage
E7G Active audio filters: characteristics; basic circuit design;
preselector applications
E7G01 @E7C01 (B)
What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC
active filter?
A. The values of capacitances and resistances built into the op-amp
B. The values of capacitances and resistances external to the op-amp
C. The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
D. The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply
E7G02 @E7C02 (C)
What causes ringing in a filter?
A. The slew rate of the filter
B. The bandwidth of the filter
C. The filter shape, as measured in the frequency domain
D. The gain of the filter
E7G03 @E7C03 (D)
What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in
an audio filter?
A. Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC
elements
B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
C. Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
E7G04 @E7C04 (C)
What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC active filter
circuit?
A. Electrolytic
B. Disc ceramic
C. Polystyrene
D. Paper dielectric
E7G05 @E7C05 (A)
How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a
multisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
A. Restrict both gain and Q
B. Restrict gain, but increase Q
C. Restrict Q, but increase gain
D. Increase both gain and Q
E7G06 @E7C06 (A)
What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using
an op-amp?
A. Bandpass characteristic
B. Desired current gain
C. Temperature coefficient
D. Output-offset overshoot
E7G07 @E7C07 (B)
The design of a preselector involves a trade-off between bandwidth and
what other factor?
A. The amount of ringing
B. Insertion loss
C. The number of parts
D. The choice of capacitors or inductors
E7G08 @E7C08 (A)
When designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range
and Q, what steps are typically followed when selecting the external
components?
A. Standard capacitor values are chosen first, the resistances are
calculated, then resistors of the nearest standard value are used
B. Standard resistor values are chosen first, the capacitances are
calculated, then capacitors of the nearest standard value are used
C. Standard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is
tested, then additional resistors are added to make any adjustments
D. Standard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is
tested, then additional capacitors are added to make any adjustments
E7G09 @E7C09 (C)
When designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range
and Q, why are the external capacitance values usually chosen first,
then the external resistance values calculated?
A. An op-amp will perform as an active filter using only standard
external capacitance values
B. The calculations are easier to make with known capacitance values
rather than with known resistance values
C. Capacitors with unusual capacitance values are not widely
available, so standard values are used to begin the calculations
D. The equations for the calculations can only be used with known
capacitance values
E7G10 @E7C10 (D)
What are the principal uses of an op-amp RC active filter in amateur
circuitry?
A. High-pass filters used to block RFI at the input to receivers
B. Low-pass filters used between transmitters and transmission lines
C. Filters used for smoothing power-supply output
D. Audio filters used for receivers
E7G11 @E7C11 (D)
Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in an amateur
receiver?
A. In the IF strip, immediately before the detector
B. In the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker or phone
jack
C. Between the balanced modulator and frequency multiplier
D. In the low-level audio stages
SUBELEMENT E8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]
E8A AC waveforms: sine wave, square wave, sawtooth wave; AC
measurements: peak, peak-to-peak and root-mean-square (RMS) value,
peak-envelope-power (PEP) relative to average
E8A01 @A8E02 (C)
Starting at a positive peak, how many times does a sine wave cross the
zero axis in one complete cycle?
A. 180 times
B. 4 times
C. 2 times
D. 360 times
E8A02 @A8E06 (C)
What is a wave called that abruptly changes back and forth between two
voltage levels and remains an equal time at each level?
A. A sine wave
B. A cosine wave
C. A square wave
D. A sawtooth wave
E8A03 @A8E07 (D)
What sine waves added to a fundamental frequency make up a square
wave?
A. A sine wave 0.707 times the fundamental frequency
B. All odd and even harmonics
C. All even harmonics
D. All odd harmonics
E8A04 @A8E08 (A)
What type of wave is made up of a sine wave of a fundamental frequency
and all its odd harmonics?
A. A square wave
B. A sine wave
C. A cosine wave
D. A tangent wave
E8A05 @A8E09 (B)
What is a sawtooth wave?
A. A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time
at each level
B. A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time
(or vice versa)
C. A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle
D. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by
a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
E8A06 @A8E10 (C)
What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than the fall
time (or vice versa)?
A. A cosine wave
B. A square wave
C. A sawtooth wave
D. A sine wave
E8A07 @A8E11 (A)
What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a fundamental frequency
and all harmonics?
A. A sawtooth wave
B. A square wave
C. A sine wave
D. A cosine wave
E8A08 @A8F01 (B)
What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?
A. 240 volts
B. 170 volts
C. 120 volts
D. 340 volts
E8A09 @A8F02 (C)
What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical
outlet?
A. 240 volts
B. 120 volts
C. 340 volts
D. 170 volts
E8A10 @A8F03 (A)
What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?
A. 120-V AC
B. 340-V AC
C. 85-V AC
D. 170-V AC
E8A11 @A8F04 (A)
What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
A. 120-V AC
B. 170-V AC
C. 240-V AC
D. 300-V AC
E8A12 @A8F05 (C)
What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?
A. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of
the peak AC voltage
B. The DC voltage causing the same heating of a given resistor as the
peak AC voltage
C. The AC voltage causing the same heating of a given resistor as a
DC voltage of the same value
D. The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC
value
E8A13 @A8F06 (D)
What would be the most accurate way of determining the RMS voltage of
a complex waveform?
A. By using a grid dip meter
B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C. By using an absorption wavemeter
D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
E8A14 @A8F07 (A)
For many types of voices, what is the approximate ratio of PEP to
average power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone
signal?
A. 2.5 to 1
B. 25 to 1
C. 1 to 1
D. 100 to 1
E8A15 @A8F08 (B)
In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average
power ratio?
A. The frequency of the modulating signal
B. The speech characteristics
C. The degree of carrier suppression
D. The amplifier power
E8A16 @A8F09 (C)
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier
stage in an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500
watts?
A. 900 watts
B. 1765 watts
C. 2500 watts
D. 3000 watts
E8A17 @A8F11 (D)
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power
amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP
output power is 500 watts?
A. 250 watts
B. 600 watts
C. 800 watts
D. 1000 watts
E8B FCC emission designators versus emission types; modulation
symbols and transmission characteristics; modulation methods;
modulation index; deviation ratio; pulse modulation: width; position
E8B01 @A8A01 (A)
What is emission A3C?
A. Facsimile
B. RTTY
C. ATV
D. Slow Scan TV
E8B02 @A8A02 (B)
What type of emission is produced when an AM transmitter is modulated
by a facsimile signal?
A. A3F
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. F3C
E8B03 @A8A03 (C)
What does a facsimile transmission produce?
A. Tone-modulated telegraphy
B. A pattern of printed characters designed to form a picture
C. Printed pictures by electrical means
D. Moving pictures by electrical means
E8B04 @A8A08 (D)
What is emission F3F?
A. Modulated CW
B. Facsimile
C. RTTY
D. Television
E8B05 @A8A10 (D)
What type of emission is produced when an SSB transmitter is modulated
by a slow-scan television signal?
A. J3A
B. F3F
C. A3F
D. J3F
E8B06 @A8B03 (B)
If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is J, representing a
single-sideband, suppressed-carrier signal, what information about the
emission is described?
A. The nature of any signal multiplexing
B. The type of modulation of the main carrier
C. The maximum permissible bandwidth
D. The maximum signal level, in decibels
E8B07 @A8B07 (C)
If the second symbol of an ITU emission designator is 1, representing
a single channel containing quantized, or digital information, what
information about the emission is described?
A. The maximum transmission rate, in bauds
B. The maximum permissible deviation
C. The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
D. The type of information to be transmitted
E8B08 @A8B08 (D)
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is D, representing
data transmission, telemetry or telecommand, what information about
the emission is described?
A. The maximum transmission rate, in bauds
B. The maximum permissible deviation
C. The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
D. The type of information to be transmitted
E8B09 @A8C02 (A)
How can the unwanted sideband be removed from a double-sideband signal
generated by a balanced modulator to produce a single-sideband phone
signal?
A. By filtering
B. By heterodyning
C. By mixing
D. By neutralization
E8B10 @A8C05 (D)
How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with
RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
E8B11 @A8C06 (A)
In an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz
either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index
when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
A. 3
B. 0.3
C. 3000
D. 1000
E8B12 @A8C07 (B)
What is the modulation index of an FM-phone transmitter producing an
instantaneous carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz
modulating frequency?
A. 6000
B. 3
C. 2000
D. 1/3
E8B13 @A8C10 (D)
What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum
frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum
modulation rate of 3 kHz?
A. 60
B. 0.16
C. 0.6
D. 1.66
E8B14 @E8A01 (A)
In a pulse-modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power much
greater than its average power?
A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are
generated within the modulator
D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also
amplitude modulated
E8B15 @E8A02 (C)
What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation
system?
A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on
the voice waveform at that instant
B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending
on the voice waveform at that instant
C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on
the voice waveform at that instant
D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the
voice waveform at that instant
E8B16 @E8A09 (A)
What function does a pulse-width modulator perform in a switching
regulator power supply?
A. It turns the switch transistor on and off at the proper time to
ensure smooth regulation
B. It increases and decreases the load current at the proper time to
ensure smooth regulation
C. It increases or decreases the frequency of the input voltage to
ensure that AC pulses are sent at regular intervals to the rectifier
D. It turns the rectifier on and off at regular intervals to avoid
overheating the power supply
E8C Digital signals: CW; baudot; ASCII; packet; AMTOR; Clover;
information rate vs bandwidth
E8C01 @E8B01 (D)
What digital code consists of elements having unequal length?
A. ASCII
B. AX.25
C. Baudot
D. Morse code
E8C02 @E8B02 (B)
What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and
ASCII?
A. Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot
uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
B. Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot
uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
C. Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot
has no shift code, ASCII uses one character as a shift code
D. Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight;
Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses one character as a shift code
E8C03 @E8B03 (C)
What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
A. It includes built-in error-correction features
B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other
code
C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
D. It uses one character as a "shift" code to send numeric and
special characters
E8C04 @E8B04 (B)
What digital communications system is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
A. ACSSB
B. Packet radio
C. AMTOR
D. Spread spectrum
E8C05 @E8B05 (D)
What type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use?
A. Each character is sent twice
B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence
(FCS) against the transmitted FCS
C. The receiving station checks the calculated frame parity against
the transmitted parity
D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed
E8C06 @E8B06 (A)
What type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use?
A. Each character is sent twice
B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence
(FCS) against the transmitted FCS
C. The receiving station checks the calculated frame parity against
the transmitted parity
D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed
E8C07 @E8B07 (C)
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code
emission A1A transmission?
A. Approximately 13 Hz
B. Approximately 26 Hz
C. Approximately 52 Hz
D. Approximately 104 Hz
E8C08 @E8B08 (C)
What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII
emission J2D transmission?
A. 0 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz
E8C09 @E8B09 (D)
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hz shift, 1200-baud ASCII
emission F1D transmission?
A. 1000 Hz
B. 1200 Hz
C. 440 Hz
D. 2400 Hz
E8C10 @E8B10 (A)
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-
baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
A. 15.36 kHz
B. 9.6 kHz
C. 4.8 kHz
D. 5.76 kHz
E8D Amplitude compandored single-sideband (ACSSB); spread-spectrum
communications
E8D01 @E8C01 (C)
What is amplitude compandored single-sideband?
A. Reception of single-sideband signal with a conventional CW
receiver
B. Reception of single-sideband signal with a conventional FM
receiver
C. Single-sideband signal incorporating speech compression at the
transmitter and speech expansion at the receiver
D. Single-sideband signal incorporating speech expansion at the
transmitter and speech compression at the receiver
E8D02 @E8C02 (A)
What is meant by compandoring?
A. Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at the
receiver
B. Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length modulation
C. Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a single-
sideband signal
D. Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by converting
it to a pulse-modulated signal
E8D03 @E8C03 (A)
What is the purpose of a pilot tone in an amplitude-compandored
single-sideband system?
A. It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver
B. It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver
C. It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered
interference
D. It acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation
characteristic of the band
E8D04 @E8C04 (D)
What is the approximate frequency of the pilot tone in an amplitude-
compandored single-sideband system?
A. 1 kHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 455 kHz
D. 3 kHz
E8D05 @E8C05 (B)
How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a given frequency
band for amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems over
conventional FM-phone systems?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E8D06 @E8C06 (D)
What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which
the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence?
A. Amplitude compandored single sideband
B. AMTOR
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Spread-spectrum communication
E8D07 @E8C07 (A)
What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center
frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in
accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Frequency compandored spread-spectrum
E8D08 @E8C08 (B)
What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a very fast binary
bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Binary phase-shift keying
D. Phase compandored spread-spectrum
E8D09 @E8C09 (C)
What controls the spreading sequence of an amateur spread-spectrum
transmission?
A. A frequency-agile linear amplifier
B. A crystal-controlled filter linked to a high-speed crystal
switching mechanism
C. A binary linear-feedback shift register
D. A binary code which varies if propagation changes
E8D10 @E8C10 (D)
Why are spread-spectrum communications so resistant to interference?
A. Interfering signals are removed by a frequency-agile crystal
filter
B. Spread-spectrum transmitters use much higher power than
conventional carrier-frequency transmitters
C. Spread-spectrum transmitters can "hunt" for the best carrier
frequency to use within a given RF spectrum
D. Only signals using the correct spreading sequence are received
E8D11 @E8C11 (B)
Why do spread-spectrum communications interfere so little with
conventional channelized communications in the same band?
A. A spread-spectrum transmitter avoids channels within the band
which are in use by conventional transmitters
B. Spread-spectrum signals appear only as low-level noise in
conventional receivers
C. Spread-spectrum signals change too rapidly to be detected by
conventional receivers
D. Special crystal filters are needed in conventional receivers to
detect spread-spectrum signals
E8E Peak amplitude (positive and negative); peak-to-peak values:
measurements; Electromagnetic radiation; wave polarization; signal-to-
noise (S/N) ratio
E8E01 @E8D01 (D)
What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion
of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. Inverse peak negative voltage
C. RMS voltage
D. Peak positive voltage
E8E02 @E8D03 (A)
What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing
a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. RMS voltage
C. Average voltage
D. DC voltage
E8E03 @E8D04 (B)
What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak
voltage amplitude in a symmetrical waveform?
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 4:1
E8E04 @E8D05 (A)
What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-
handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
A. Peak voltage
B. RMS voltage
C. An average reading power output meter
D. Resting voltage
E8E05 @E8D07 (B)
What is the PEP output of a transmitter that has a maximum peak of 30
volts to a 50-ohm load as observed on an oscilloscope?
A. 4.5 watts
B. 9 watts
C. 16 watts
D. 18 watts
E8E06 @E8D09 (D)
If an RMS reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal
waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
A. 46 volts
B. 92 volts
C. 130 volts
D. 184 volts
E8E07 @E8D11 (A)
What is the advantage of using a peak-reading voltmeter to monitor the
output of a single-sideband transmitter?
A. It would be easy to calculate the PEP output of the transmitter
B. It would be easy to calculate the RMS output power of the
transmitter
C. It would be easy to calculate the SWR on the transmission line
D. It would be easy to observe the output amplitude variations
E8E08 @A8D01 (C)
What are electromagnetic waves?
A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each
other
C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at
right angles to each other
D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each
other
E8E09 @A8D03 (C)
Why don't electromagnetic waves penetrate a good conductor for more
than a fraction of a wavelength?
A. Electromagnetic waves are reflected by the surface of a good
conductor
B. Oxide on the conductor surface acts as a magnetic shield
C. The electromagnetic waves are dissipated as eddy currents in the
conductor surface
D. The resistance of the conductor surface dissipates the
electromagnetic waves
E8E10 @A8D04 (D)
Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling
in free space?
A. Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
B. The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive
index
C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their
source
D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy across
a vacuum
E8E11 @A8D06 (B)
What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
A. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
B. Waves with a rotating electric field
C. Waves that circle the Earth
D. Waves produced by a loop antenna
E8E12 @A8D08 (D)
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic
field is parallel to the surface of the Earth?
A. Circular
B. Horizontal
C. Elliptical
D. Vertical
E8E13 @A8D09 (A)
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic
field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth?
A. Horizontal
B. Circular
C. Elliptical
D. Vertical
E8E14 @A8D11 (D)
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in an HF-band
receiver with an antenna connected?
A. Detector noise
B. Man-made noise
C. Receiver front-end noise
D. Atmospheric noise
E8E15 @A8D12 (A)
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in a VHF/UHF-
band receiver with an antenna connected?
A. Receiver front-end noise
B. Man-made noise
C. Atmospheric noise
D. Detector noise
SUBELEMENT E9 -- ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [5 Exam Questions -- 5
Groups]
E9A Isotropic radiators: definition; used as a standard for
comparison; radiation pattern; basic antenna parameters: radiation
resistance and reactance (including wire dipole, folded dipole), gain,
beamwidth, efficiency
E9A01 @E9A02 (C)
Which of the following describes an isotropic radiator?
A. A grounded radiator used to measure earth conductivity
B. A horizontal radiator used to compare Yagi antennas
C. A theoretical radiator used to compare other antennas
D. A spacecraft radiator used to direct signals toward the earth
E9A02 @E9A03 (A)
When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator?
A. When comparing the gains of directional antennas
B. When testing a transmission line for standing-wave ratio
C. When directing a transmission toward the tropical latitudes
D. When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
E9A03 @E9A06 (B)
How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic
radiator?
A. About 1.5 dB
B. About 2.1 dB
C. About 3.0 dB
D. About 6.0 dB
E9A04 @E9A09 (D)
Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
A. Quarter-wave vertical
B. Yagi
C. Half-wave dipole
D. Isotropic radiator
E9A05 @E9A10 (C)
Which of the following describes the radiation pattern of an isotropic
radiator?
A. A tear drop in the vertical plane
B. A circle in the horizontal plane
C. A sphere with the antenna in the center
D. Crossed polarized with a spiral shape
E9A06 @A9A03 (A)
Why would one need to know the radiation resistance of an antenna?
A. To match impedances for maximum power transfer
B. To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting
antenna
C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
D. To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
E9A07 @A9A04 (B)
What factors determine the radiation resistance of an antenna?
A. Transmission-line length and antenna height
B. Antenna location with respect to nearby objects and the
conductors' length/diameter ratio
C. It is a physical constant and is the same for all antennas
D. Sunspot activity and time of day
E9A08 @A9A05 (C)
What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an
antenna to the total resistance of the system?
A. Effective radiated power
B. Radiation conversion loss
C. Antenna efficiency
D. Beamwidth
E9A09 @A9A06 (D)
What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
C. Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
E9A10 @A9A07 (C)
What is a folded dipole antenna?
A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B. A type of ground-plane antenna
C. A dipole whose ends are connected by a one-half wavelength piece
of wire
D. A hypothetical antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace
the radiation resistance
E9A11 @A9A09 (A)
What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an
antenna to that of another antenna
B. The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the
signal in the back direction
C. The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna
compared to the transmitter output power
D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses
(including any phasing lines present)
E9A12 @A9A10 (B)
What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to
perform well
C. The angle between the half-power radiation points
D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the
ends of the elements
E9A13 @A9A11 (A)
How can the approximate beamwidth of a beam antenna be determined?
A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is
down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular
difference
B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and
measure the angle between the lines
D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
lobes from the front and side of the antenna
E9A14 @A9A12 (B)
How is antenna efficiency calculated?
A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%
E9A15 @A9A13 (A)
How can the efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made
comparable to that of a half-wave dipole antenna?
A. By installing a good ground radial system
B. By isolating the coax shield from ground
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By lengthening the vertical
E9B Free-space antenna patterns: E and H plane patterns (ie, azimuth
and elevation in free-space); gain as a function of pattern; antenna
design (computer modeling of antennas)
E9B01 @A9B01 (C)
What determines the free-space polarization of an antenna?
A. The orientation of its magnetic field (H Field)
B. The orientation of its free-space characteristic impedance
C. The orientation of its electric field (E Field)
D. Its elevation pattern
E9B02 @New (D)
Which of the following statements is true about the radiation pattern
shown in Figure A9-1?
A. The pattern shows the beamwidth of the antenna
B. The pattern shows the azimuth or directional pattern of the antenna
C. The pattern shows the front to back pattern of the antenna
D. All of these choices are correct
E9B03 @A9B03 (B)
In the free-space H-Field radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what
is the 3-dB beamwidth?
A. 75 degrees
B. 50 degrees
C. 25 degrees
D. 30 degrees
E9B04 @A9B04 (B)
In the free-space H-Field pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what is the
front-to-back ratio?
A. 36 dB
B. 18 dB
C. 24 dB
D. 14 dB
E9B05 @A9B05 (D)
What information is needed to accurately evaluate the gain of an
antenna?
A. Radiation resistance
B. E-Field and H-Field patterns
C. Loss resistance
D. All of these choices
E9B06 @A9B06 (D)
Which is NOT an important reason to evaluate a gain antenna across the
whole frequency band for which it was designed?
A. The gain may fall off rapidly over the whole frequency band
B. The feedpoint impedance may change radically with frequency
C. The rearward pattern lobes may vary excessively with frequency
D. The dielectric constant may vary significantly
E9B07 @A9B07 (B)
What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum
forward gain?
A. The front-to-back ratio increases
B. The feedpoint impedance becomes very low
C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
D. The SWR is reduced
E9B08 @A9B08 (A)
If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are
properly retuned, what usually occurs?
A. The gain increases
B. The SWR decreases
C. The front-to-back ratio increases
D. The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
E9B09 @A9B09 (B)
What type of computer program is commonly used for modeling antennas?
A. Graphical analysis
B. Method of Moments
C. Mutual impedance analysis
D. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
E9B10 @A9B10 (A)
What is the principle of a "Method of Moments" analysis?
A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct
value of current
B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct
location in space
D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct
value of voltage across it
E9B11 @A9B11 (B)
In the free-space H-field pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what is the
front-to-side ratio?
A. 12 dB
B. 14 dB
C. 18 dB
D. 24 dB
E9C Phased vertical antennas; radiation patterns; beverage antennas;
rhombic antennas: resonant; nonresonant; radiation pattern; antenna
patterns: elevation above real ground, ground effects as related to
polarization, take-off angles as a function of height above ground
E9C01 @E9B01 (D)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A. Unidirectional cardioid
B. Omnidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
E9C02 @E9B02 (A)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
A. Unidirectional cardioid
B. Figure-8 end-fire
C. Figure-8 broadside
D. Omnidirectional
E9C03 @E9B03 (C)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Cardioid unidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
E9C04 @E9B04 (D)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Cardioid unidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
E9C05 @E9B05 (D)
What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/8-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Cardioid unidirectional
C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
E9C06 @E9B06 (B)
What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Substantially unidirectional
B. Elliptical
C. Cardioid unidirectional
D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
E9C07 @E9B07 (B)
Which of the following is the best description of a resonant rhombic
antenna?
A. Unidirectional; four-sided, each side a half-wavelength long;
terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
B. Bidirectional; four-sided, each side approximately one wavelength
long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
C. Four-sided; an LC network at each vertex except for the
transmission connection; tuned to resonate at the operating frequency
D. Four-sided, each side of a different physical length; traps at
each vertex for changing resonance according to band usage
E9C08 @E9B09 (A)
What are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
A. Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio
B. High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
C. Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size
D. Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency
range
E9C09 @E9B10 (C)
What are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
A. A large area for proper installation and a narrow bandwidth
B. A large area for proper installation and a low front-to-back ratio
C. A large area and four sturdy supports for proper installation
D. A large amount of aluminum tubing and a low front-to-back ratio
E9C10 @E9B11 (B)
What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the
transmitter
B. It changes the radiation pattern from essentially bidirectional to
essentially unidirectional
C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical
polarization
D. It decreases the ground loss
E9C11 @A9C01 (A)
What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure A9-2?
A. Elevation pattern
B. Azimuth pattern
C. E-Plane pattern
D. Polarization pattern
E9C12 @A9C05 (D)
How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized
antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
A. The low-angle radiation decreases
B. The high-angle radiation increases
C. Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
D. The low-angle radiation increases
E9C13 @A9C08 (C)
If only a modest on-ground radial system can be used with an eighth-
wavelength-high, inductively loaded vertical antenna, what would be
the best compromise to minimize near-field losses?
A. 4 radial wires, 1 wavelength long
B. 8 radial wires, a half-wavelength long
C. A wire-mesh screen at the antenna base, an eighth-wavelength
square
D. 4 radial wires, 2 wavelengths long
E9C14 @A9C09 (C)
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-2, what is the
elevation angle of the peak response?
A. 45 degrees
B. 75 degrees
C. 7.5 degrees
D. 25 degrees
E9C15 @A9C10 (B)
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-2, what is the
front-to-back ratio?
A. 15 dB
B. 28 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 24 dB
E9C16 #New (D)
What is one characteristic of a Beverage antenna?
A. For best performance it must not exceed 1/4 wavelength in length
at the desired frequency
B. For best performance it must be mounted more than 1 wavelength
above ground at the desired frequency
C. For best performance it should be configured as four-sided loop
D. For best performance it should be as long as possible
E9D Space and satellite communications antennas: gain; beamwidth;
tracking; losses in real antennas and matching: resistivity losses,
losses in resonating elements (loading coils, matching networks, etc.
{ie, mobile, trap}); SWR bandwidth; efficiency
E9D01 @E9C01 (A)
What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an
amateur satellite station in earth operation?
A. Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite
B. Length of transmission line and impedance match between receiver
and transmission line
C. Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or absence
of RF amplifier stages
D. Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit
E9D02 @E9C02 (A)
What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite
station in earth operation?
A. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
B. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving
antenna
D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio,
satellite transmitter power
E9D03 @E9C06 (B)
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of
20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A. 10.1 degrees
B. 20.3 degrees
C. 45.0 degrees
D. 60.9 degrees
E9D04 @E9C04 (C)
How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the
operating frequency is doubled?
A. Gain does not change
B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C. Gain increases 6 dB
D. Gain increases 3 dB
E9D05 @E9C10 (C)
How is circular polarization produced using linearly polarized
antennas?
A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array
with the respective elements in parallel planes
B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the
respective elements in parallel planes
C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven
elements in the same plane, fed 90 degrees out of phase
D. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven
elements in the same plane, fed in phase
E9D06 @E9C05 (D)
How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?
A. It increases geometrically
B. It increases arithmetically
C. It is essentially unaffected
D. It decreases
E9D07 @E9C11 (A)
Why does a satellite communications antenna system for earth operation
need to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation control?
A. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
B. Because the antennas are large and heavy
C. In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid
terrestrial interference
D. To rotate antenna polarization along the azimuth and elevate the
system towards the satellite
E9D08 @A9D02 (A)
For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be
placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance?
A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
C. As close to the transmitter as possible
D. At a voltage node
E9D09 @A9D03 (C)
Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of
reactance to resistance?
A. To swamp out harmonics
B. To maximize losses
C. To minimize losses
D. To minimize the Q
E9D10 @A9D05 (A)
What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna?
A. It will radiate harmonics
B. It can only be used for single-band operation
C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
D. It must be neutralized
E9D11 @A9D09 (A)
How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a
"hairpin" matching system?
A. The driven element reactance is capacitive
B. The driven element reactance is inductive
C. The driven element resonance is higher than the operating
frequency
D. The driven element radiation resistance is higher than the
characteristic impedance of the transmission line
E9D12 @A9D10 (C)
What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a "hairpin"
matching system on a 3-element Yagi?
A. Pi network
B. Pi-L network
C. L network
D. Parallel-resonant tank
E9D13 @A9D11 (B)
What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through
the use of loading coils?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat
E9D14 @A9D12 (D)
What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical
antenna?
A. Lower Q
B. Greater structural strength
C. Higher losses
D. Improved radiation efficiency
E9E Matching antennas to feed lines; characteristics of open and
shorted feed lines: 1/8 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 3/8 wavelength;
1/2 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength matching transformers; feed lines: coax
versus open-wire; velocity factor; electrical length; transformation
characteristics of line terminated in impedance not equal to
characteristic impedance
E9E01 @E9D01 (B)
What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower
impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two
places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system
E9E02 @E9D02 (A)
What system matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding
the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction
of a wavelength to one side of center?
A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system
E9E03 @E9D03 (D)
What impedance matching system uses a short perpendicular section of
transmission line connected to the feed line near the antenna?
A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system
E9E04 @E9D04 (B)
What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor
in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the
20-meter wavelength band?
A. 70 pF
B. 140 pF
C. 200 pF
D. 0.2 pF
E9E05 @E9D08 (A)
What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present
to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A. A very high impedance
B. A very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
D. The same as the generator output impedance
E9E06 @E9D11 (A)
What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present
to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
A. A very high impedance
B. A very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
E9E07 @A9E01 (D)
What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the
terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by
the velocity of light in a vacuum
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the
velocity of light in a vacuum
E9E08 @A9E04 (C)
What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?
A. The termination impedance
B. The line length
C. Dielectrics in the line
D. The center conductor resistivity
E9E09 @A9E05 (D)
Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line
shorter than its electrical length?
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
B. The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
C. The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
D. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable
E9E10 @A9E03 (B)
What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with
polyethylene dielectric?
A. 2.70
B. 0.66
C. 0.30
D. 0.10
E9E11 @A9E06 (C)
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission
line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
(Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.)
A. 20 meters
B. 2.33 meters
C. 3.51 meters
D. 0.25 meters
E9E12 @A9E08 (C)
What is the physical length of a parallel conductor feed line that is
electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (Assume a velocity
factor of 0.95.)
A. 15 meters
B. 20.2 meters
C. 10.1 meters
D. 70.8 meters
E9E13 @A9E10 (B)
What parameter best describes the interactions at the load end of a
mismatched transmission line?
A. Characteristic impedance
B. Reflection coefficient
C. Velocity factor
D. Dielectric Constant
E9E14 @A9E11 (D)
Which of the following measurements describes a mismatched
transmission line?
A. An SWR less than 1:1
B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1
C. A dielectric constant greater than 1
D. An SWR greater than 1:1
E9E15 @A9E12 (A)
What characteristic will 450-ohm ladder line have at 50 MHz, as
compared to 0.195-inch-diameter coaxial cable (such as RG-58)?
A. Lower loss in dB/100 feet
B. Higher SWR
C. Smaller reflection coefficient
D. Lower velocity factor
73 de Mirko +++ DL 8 ABO / AB 0 DL +++
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